Table of Contents
Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Previous Years Question Papers are best for the right preparation of the KVS Primary Teacher 2022. Attempting Previous Year Question papers ensure the efficient practice of the exam in all ways. KVS Previous Year Papers give you an idea about what type of questions can be asked in the paper. It will also help you know the difficulty level of this examination so that you can maintain your preparation based on that. The question papers for KVS Primary Teacher can be used effectively for exam preparation.
KVS announces vacancies for Primary Teachers. Candidates preparing for KVS PRT exams must include KVS previous year’s question paper to attempt the final question paper with utmost accuracy. It is important to refer to KVS Primary Teacher’s Previous Year Question Paper for the easy practice of the exam. Aspirants can get a better understanding of the important topics under the KVS Primary Teachers Exam by solving previous year’s papers.
The KVS Primary Teachers Question Papers are beneficial as it helps in acknowledging what to study, how to make a strategy to cover the whole content, and also provide a way to avoid unnecessary mistakes from an exam point of view. Candidates can go through the KVS Primary Teachers Previous Years Question Papers here. The direct link to KVS Question Paper for Primary Teachers Exam is also available on the website.
KVS PRT 22nd December 2018 Questions with Answers
In this section, you will get the answers of the KVS Primary Teacher 2018 Written Exam held on 22nd December 2018. The Written Exam was conducted in offline mode for 5500 Primary Teacher Vacancies for all the subjects including Music in the MCQ format.
PART – I
General English
1. Directions: Choose the word most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word:
FACT
(1) Fiction
(2) Imagination
(3) Reality
(4) Lie
Answer: (4)
Directions (2) and (3): Complete the following sentences by using the correct form of the verb with the help of options that follow:
2. The Headmaster ____________ to speak to you.
(1) is wanting
(2) was wanting
(3) were wanting
(4) wants
Answer: (4)
3. He _________ for five hours.
(1) has been sleeping
(2) must had been Sleeping
(3) was sleeping
(4) had slept
Answer: (1)
Directions (4) and (5): In each of the following sentences improve the underlined part with the help of given options:
4. I shall have much pleasure in accepting your kind invitation to dinner.
(1) Can’t have much pleasure
(2) I am having much pleasure
(3) I may have much pleasure
(4) I have much pleasure
Answer: (4)
5. No sooner
did the police arrived than the robbers made good their escape.
(1) No sooner when the police arrived
(2) No sooner did the police arrive
(3) No sooner the police arrived
(4) No Sooner had the police arrived
Answer: (4)
6. Directions: The idiom given below is followed by four possible meanings. Choose the correct option:
By fits and starts
(1) irregularly
(2) successfully
(3) incompletely
(4) suddenly
Answer: (1)
7. Directions: In the following sentence, out of the given alternatives choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word:
(1)His performance in the office is quite superficial.
(2) shallow
(3) excessive
(4) unnatural
Answer: (4)
8. Directions: In the following sentence, one part may have an error. Choose the one which has the error, if any:
It is high time/that we send/the answer/to this query.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer: (2)
Directions (9) and (10): In the following items a word is followed by four explanatory expressions. Choose the expression which best describes the word:
9. ORTHODOX
(1) one who flonts established opinions
(2) one who has no opinions of one’s own
(3) one who holds established opinions
(4) one who is self opinionated
Answer: (3)
10. EXPLICIT
(1) drawing out a secret from somebody
(2) comparison that is out of place
(3) statement that is absolutely clear
(4) trade prohibited by law
Answer: (3)
Part – I
General Hindi
11. निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से सही वर्तनी वाले शब्द का चुनाव कीजिए:
(1) उज्ज्वल
(2) उज्जवल
(3) उज्वल
(4) उजवल
Answer: (1)
12. ‘जल्दी चलो’ – रेखांकित अंश में कौन-सा विशेषण है?
(1) परिमाण बोधक विशेषण
(2) अनिश्चय वाचक विशेषण
(3) निश्चय वाचक विशेषण
(4) क्रियाविशेषण
Answer: (4)
13. इनमें से कौन-सा शब्द ‘पर्वत’ का पर्याय नहीं है?
(1) भूधर
(2) नग
(3) नभ
(4) शैल
Answer: (3)
14. ‘सुख-चैन’ में समास है:
(1) कर्मधारय
(2) तत्पुरुष
(3) द्विगु
(4) द्वन्द
Answer: (4)
15. छाती पर साँप लोटना’ – मुहावरे का सही अर्थ दिए गए विकल्पों में से चुनिए:
(1) कष्ट पाना
(2) भयभीत होना
(3) साहस का काम करना
(4) ईष्र्या करना
Answer: (4)
16. परिक्रमा’ शब्द में उपसर्ग है:
(1) प
(2) मा
(3) आ
(4) परि
Answer: (4)
17. निम्नलिखित में से अशुद्ध वाक्य कौन-सा है?
(1) इस बार फसल अच्छी होगी।
(2) बैठक का समय चार बजकर दस मिनट होगा
(3) जब वर्षा होगी तब देखा जाएगा।
(4) हम सब जा रहे हैं, आप भी चलोगे ?
Answer: (3)
18. ‘सिंह वन में रहता है’ रेखांकित में कारक है:
(1) करण कारक
(2) कर्म कारक
(3) अपादान कारक
(4) अधिकरण कारक
Answer: (4)
19. ‘विद्वान’ का स्त्री-लिंग है:
(1) विद्वत्ता
(2) विदुषी
(3) विद्वत्री
(4) विद्वानी
Answer: (2)
20. ‘शाखा’ का बहुवचन है:
(1) शाखाएँ
(2) शाखियाँ
(3) शाख
(4) शाखें
Answer: (1)
Part – II
General Knowledge and Current Affairs
21. When was Goods and Service Tax (GST) introduced in India?
(1) February, 2017
(2) April, 2017
(3) July, 2017
(4) January, 2017
Answer: (3)
22. Which of the following gates in the defence wall of Delhi was identified by Ibn-Battuta as the greatest?
(1) Gul darwaza
(2) Budaun darwaza
(3) Delhi darwaza
(4) Mandwi darwaza
Answer: (2)
23. Which of the following is the first State in India that has made roof top rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the State?
(1) Punjab
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Kerala
(4) Maharashtra
Answer: (2)
24. The Chipko movement is associated with which of the following states?
(1) Uttarakhand
(2) Chhattisgarh
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Jharkhand
Answer: (1)
25. Who is the founder of Grameen Bank of Bangladesh?
(1) Mohammed Yunus
(2) Mohammed Talib
(3) S.R. Hashim
(4) Mahabub-ul-Haq
Answer: (1)
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26. Who was awarded with Jnanpith award, 2017?
(1) shiv Mehta
(2) Krishna Sobti
(3) Ramesh kuntal Megh
(4) Jayantha Mahatab Bora
Answer: (2)
27. Which one of the following rivers flows across China, India and Bangladesh?
(1) Indus
(2) Ganga
(3) Chang Jiang
(4) Brahmaputra
Answer: (4)
28. Which one of the following is not the form of precipitation?
(1) Sleet
(2) Hail
(3) Absolute humidity
(4) Rainfall
Answer: (3)
29. Dipa Karmakar won a gold medal in Gymnastics World Challenge Cup at, Mersiw, Turkey on July 8, 2018. In which event, did she win?
(1) bar event
(2) vault event
(3) parallel bar exercise
(4) floor exercise
Answer: (2)
30. Which of the following Country hosted the Asian Games in 2018?
(1) China
(2) Indonesia
(3) Japan
(4) South Korea
Answer: (2)
Part – II
Reasoning Ability
31. A solid brick of Gold measuring 18 cm x 48 cm x 16 cm is melted and converted into a cubical shape. An edge of this new shape is equal to:
(1) 24cm
(2) 12cm
(3 18cm
(4) 48cm
Answer: (1)
32. A man is standing near a clock tower. He moves southwards to reach a point ‘P’, 8 km from the clock tower. From ‘P’ he turns right, then moves 6 km to reach a point from ‘Q’ he moves to right again and reaches a point ‘R’, 10 km from ‘Q’. From ‘R’ he turns right and reaches a spot ‘S’, 6 km from ‘R’. How far and in which direction, he is from the clock tower?
(1) 2 km South
(2) 2 km North
(3) 18 km South
(4) 4 km South
Answer: (2)
33. Out the following given four words, one is different from the other three. Select the odd one:
(1) White
(2) Red
(3) Yellow
(4) Blue
Answer: (1)
34. Inder is a man and Sahej is a woman. Sahej’s mother is daughter of Inder’s mother’s sister. How is Sahej related to Inder?
(1) Sister
(2) Niece
(3) Grand-daughter
(4) Daughter
Answer: (2)
Answer: (4)
36. Observe the following words carefully:
hopeful, helpful, healthy, healing heating.
If we arrange these words in dictionary order, which one of these will be at the third place?
(1) heating
(2) helpful
(3) healthy
(4) healing
Answer: (1)
Answer: (1)
38. A cube of side 8 cm is painted red on all the sides. It is then cut into smaller cubes, each of side 2cm. How many of these smaller cubes have one or more sides painted red?
(1) 32
(2) 48
(3) 56
(4) 24
Answer: (3)
39. In a certain code language ‘PRINCESS’ is written as ‘ECINRPTU’. How will you write ‘SPICEJET’ in the same code language?
(1) EJICSPFV
(2) JECIPSGU
(3) JEICPSGV
(4) JEICPSFV
Answer: (4)
40. what is related to the numbers ‘3, 4, 5’ in the same way as numbers ‘1, 2, 3’ are related to ‘1, 4, 9’?
(1) 3, 16, 25
(2) 9, 16, 25
(3) 3, 6, 11
(4) 3, 8, 25
Answer: (2)
Part – II
Computer Literacy
41. Thesaurus tool in MS-Word is used for:
(1) Spelling suggestions
(2) Synonyms and Antonyms words
(3) Correcting sentences
(4) Grammar options
Answer: (2)
42. What is common between the following?
Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, Pintrest.
(1) All are accessible from dark web.
(2) All are social networking sites.
(3) All are news websites.
(4) All are banned websites.
Answer: (2)
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43. Artificial intelligence is the science and engineering for:
(a) making intelligent machines.
(b) making computers think like humans.
Which of the following is the correct option?
(1) Only (b)
(2) Both (a) and (b)
(3) Neither (a) nor (b)
(4) Only (a)
Answer: (2)
44. Which of the following font effect is not available in MS-PowerPoint Font dialog box?
(1) Shadow
(2i Strike Through
(3) Underline
(4) Emboss
Answer: (4)
45. ______ and _________ are the smallest and Iargest font size available in Font Size tool on formatting toolbar in MS-Office.
(1) 8 and 72
(2) 12and 64
(3) 12 and 72
(4) 8 and 64
Answer: (1)
46. Input devices most commonly used on laptops for routine operations are ____________.
(1) Keyboard and Mouse
(2) Keyboard and CD-ROM
(3) Mouse and Pendrive
(4) Keyboard and Screen
Answer: (1)
47. Which of the following features is used to apply motion effects in between a slide exits and another enteres?
(1) Animation Scheme
(2) Slide Design
(3) Slide Transition
(4) Animation Objectives
Answer: (3)
48. Which of the following are Indian IT companies?
(1) Intel and HCL
(2) HCL and TCS
(3) DELL and TCS
(4) Intel and Wipro
Answer: (2)
49. Given the following pairs:
(a) Wi-Fi – Modem
(b) Chrome – Cable
(c) File – Hard Drive
(d) Charging – Cable
Which of the above is an odd pair?
(1) (b) only
(2) (c) Only
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) only
Answer: (1)
50. Which of the following option is used to move data from one place to another in a document (MS-Office)?
(1) Paste
(2) Cut and Paste
(3) Cut
(4) Copy
Answer: (2)
Part – II
Pedagogy
51. Which of the following are important barriers in the equalisation of educational opportunities?
(a) Differences in economic states of learner
(b) Gender disparities
(c) Common school system
(d) Differences in the standards of educational institutions
Code:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (3)
52. Which of the following is not characteristic of the socially and emotionally mature person?
(1) He makes conformity to social expectations his primary goal.
(2) He is relatively free from anxiety and conflict.
(3) He is capable of exercising control in the face of emotional stress.
(4) He has a sense of humour and positive outlook on life.
Answer: (1)
53. What cannot be visualized as a role of the teacher in teaching through problem solving?
(1) Creating the problem situation.
(2 Assist students in perceiving defining and stating the problem
(3) Assist students in finding appropriate solution to the problems.
(4) Create fear free atmosphere in the class.
Answer: (1)
54. The concept of IEP (Individualised Education Plan) is not based on the idea of:
(1) current strengths of the learner
(2) individual goals to be achieved
(3) use of cooperative learning strategy
(4) separating children on the basis or ability grouping
Answer: (4)
55. What is not a major concern or the school on the development of child’s language competence?
(1) Issues related to articulation and literacy
(2) Enhancing vocabulary quantum
(3) Ability to use language and create
(4) To think and communicate with others
Answer: (1)
56. What type of efforts are needed to be made in learning of Mathematics in early primary years i.e., upto class IV?
(1) Diagnosing learning difficulties
(2) Providing enrichment programmes
(3) Completing the Course/competencies
(4) Ensuring regularity in attending the class/school
Answer: (1)
57. Which of the following is not a mode of Computer Assisted Learning?
(1) Tutorial
(2) Drill and Practice Session
(3) Modelling
(4) Data Interpretation and Drawing Conclusions
Answer: (3)
58. A school curriculum can be best defined as:
(1) The complete array of the Courses or study
(2) All the materials used to further pupils’ activities
(3) A complete set of organised experiences in the school
(4) Sum total of knowledge to be provided to learners
Answer: (1)
59. The most important issue of a multi-level situation is:
(1) seeking cooperation amongst students
(2) Class size exceeding 30
(3) Addressing the learning needs of different level students of different grades simuItaneously
(4) Arranging appropriate TLM
Answer: (3)
60. A chila takes a favourite book and retells the ‘story’ often by using pictures as cues. At what process/stage/component does she/he demonstrates?
(1) Narrative
(2) Syntactic awareness
(3) Emergent reading
(4) Phonological awareness
Answer: (1)
61. A teacher would become more effective if:
(1) he/she uses good instructional aids.
(2) her/she helps students to ask question.
(a) he/she helps students to achieve mastery learning.
(4) students score high marks.
Answer: (3)
62. Social maturity is best characterized by:
(1) ability to win friends and influence people
(2) a high level or personal adjustment
(3) a high degree of social competence
(4) a high degree of integration of one’s a needs and purposes with those of the social order
Answer: (4)
63. Match the two sets. Set – I indicate stages of cognitive development in Piaget’s model and Set – II indicates associated characteristics. Select the correct code to represent your answer.
| Set-I | Set-II |
|
(a) Sensori-motor (b) Pre-Operational (c) Concrete Operational (d) Formal Operational |
(i) Reversible thinking (ii) Object permanence (iii) Egocentrism (iv) Deductive thinking (v) Repetitive tasks (vi) Intense self awareness |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (v) (vi) (ii) (i)
(3) (v) (ii) (iv) (vi)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer: (3)
64. Which of the following best describes the effect of heredity upon development?
(1) Heredity determines how far we will go
(2) It determines how far we can go
(3) It is the prime determinant of how far we will go
(4) It is the prime determinant of how far we can go
Answer: (2)
65. Identification of learning gaps of children and plugging them is done through:
(1) Team teaching
(2 Reflective teaching
(3) Remedial teaching
(4) Re-teaching
Answer: (3)
66. You have administered a test on Mathematics to class V, most of the student failed in it. You have to construct and administer another test. Which test would you prefer?
(1) Summative test
(2) Mastery tEst
(3) Diagnostic test
(4) Formative test
Answer: (4)
67. Emotional response to symbolic stimuli is primarily the result of:
(1) maturation
(2) learning
(3) adjustment
(4) increased sensory perception
Answer: (1)
68. A generalised view or characteristics that ought to be possessed by women and men is constitutes:
(1) gender roles
(2) gender identity
(3) gender disparity
(4) gender stereotypes
Answer: (4)
69. The best way to handle a wrong response of a student would be:
(1) to explain the subject matter in detail again.
(2) to tell the student that your answer is wrong.
(3) to ask another student to give the correct answer.
(4) to explain and give another chance to give answer.
Answer: (1)
70. Micro teaching is a technique used for:
(1) teaching small sized class
(2) teaching in a simulated condition
(3) preparation of teacher in specific teaching skill
(4) teaching difficult concepts
Answer: (2)
To crack the KVS Primary Teacher Exam, aspirants must practice the previous year papers of the different subjects for which they are applying this year. It will help you to improve their speed of attempting maximum questions in minimum time with accuracy. So, in this section, we have shared the KVS Primary Teacher 2016 Previous Year Paper along with their answers.
Directions for 1 to 3: Each of the following sentences has been divided into four parts viz. (1), (2), (3) and (4). There is an error in one of the parts. Identify the part which has the error.
1. Whole the/ Country applauded/ the courage of the/ armed forces.(1) (2) (3) (4)
2. This custom/ has been prevalent/ in India/ since immemorial time.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3. The Climate/ of Pune/ is more pleasant/ than Delhi
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Directions for 4 and 5: From each group of words chose the one which can be substituted for the given definition.
4. Introductory part of a literary work:
(1) Introduction
(2) Preface
(3) Preliminary
(4) Prologue
5. A person who abstain completely from alcoholic drinks:
(1) Ascetic
(2) Abstainer
(3) Teetotaller
(4) Saint
Directions for 6 and 7: From the group of words which follows each sentence, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
6. Religion teaches us not to run after the transient pleasures of the world.
(1) Unethical
(2) Permanent
(3) Sinful
(4) Unnatural
7. There has always been a feeling of rancour between the two leaders:
(1) Suspicion
(2) Rivalry
(3) Competition
(4) Friendliness
Directions for 8 and 9: Each of the following idioms/phrases is followed by four alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses its meaning.
8. A red – letter day
(1) A day memorable for some joyful event.
(2) A day on which something dangerous took place
(3) A day on which one fails in an enterprise
(4) A day on which one meets one’s old friends
9. To show the white feather
(1) To act gracefully
(2) To assume airs
(3) To be fashionable
(4) To show signs of cowardice
Directions for 10 and 11: Complete each sentence given below with the appropriate alternative from those that follow.
10. He never takes sides, and always remains _______________.
(1) Impartial
(2) Unbiased
(3) Prejudiced
(4) Candid
11. He is generally afraid as he lives in the world of ______________.
(1) Hallucination
(2) Allusion
(3) Illusions
(4) Conclusions
Directions for 12 and 13: Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in each of the given sentences.
12. The film began with an eerie scene.
(1) Strange
(2) Dangerous
(3) Thrilling
(4) Wonderful
13. War is not the only inevitable means to decide a long-standing dispute.
(1) Improbable
(2) Indefinite
(3) Imminent
(4) Unavoidable
Directions for 14 and 15: In each of the following groups of words only one word has been correctly spelt. Identify the correct one.
14.
(1) Pathetic
(2) Pethatic
(3) Pathatic
(4) Pathtic
15.
(1) Dicieve
(2) Deceive
(3) Decieve
(4) Diceive
16. निम्नलिखित वाक्य में रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति उचित मुहावरा चुनकर कीजिए।
‘किसी के सामने ………………………. मेरी आदत नहीं है।’
(1) खिल्ली उडाला।
(2) हाथ फैलाना
(3) दाँत पिसना।
(4) खयाली पुलाव पकाना
17. स्वागत का सही संधि – विच्छेद कीजिए :
(1) सु + वागत
(2) स्व + आगत
(3) स्वा + आगत
(4) सु + आगत
18. ‘मदोन्मत’ शब्द में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा समास है? उसे चुनिए :
(1) तत्पुरुषः
(2) अव्ययीभाव-
(3) कर्मधारय।
(4) द्विगु
19. ‘आवश्यकता से अधिक धन का संचयन करना’ इस वाक्य के लिए सही शब्द का चयन कीजिए :
(1) इन्द्रिय निग्रह,
(2) अपरिग्रह
(3) संग्रह
(4) परिग्रह.
20. इनमें से अशुद्ध वर्तनी का विकल्प चुनिए:
(1) वैदेही
(2) उज्ज्वल
(3) स्वयंवर
(4) परीक्षा
21. ‘राधा ने खाना पकाया’ इस वाक्य में कौन सा काल है? उसे चुनिए :
(1) सामान्यभूत-
(2) अपूर्णभूत
(3) पूर्णभूत।
(4) संदिग्धभूत
22. ‘बिल्ली छत पर बैठी है।’ इस वाक्य में रेखांकित पद में कौन-सा कारक है? निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में चयन कीजिए :
(1) सम्बोधन कारक
(2) कर्ताकारक।
(3) अपादान कारक
(4) अभिकरण कारक.
23. दो निर्दिष्ट अक्षरों के पास – पास आने के कारण उनके मेल से जो विकार होता है, उसे क्या कहते हैं? चिन्हित कीजिए :
(1) संयुक्त क्रिया
(2) समास
(3) कारक
(4) संधि
24. ‘पतंग उड़ रही हैं। इस वाक्य में ‘उड़ रही’ क्रिया किस प्रकार की है?
(1) प्रेरणार्थक क्रिया
(2) सकर्मक,
(3) अकर्मक
(4) समापिका
25. निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से एक शब्द ‘पहाड़’ का पर्यायवाची नहीं है, उसे छाँटिए :
(3) शैलजा –
(2) शैल
(3) भूधर|
(4) अचल
26. ‘गँवार’ शब्द में प्रयुक्त प्रत्यय का चयन कीजिए :
(1) आप
(2) इया
(3) आर
(4) अनीय
27. निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से उस विकल्प को छाँटिए जिसमें केवल विशेषण शब्द हो :
(1) गोरा पतला, वह
(2) सूक्ष्म, भारत, यमुना
(3) काला, ऊँचा, सुन्दर
(4) लड़का, सूर्य, हम
28. निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से स्त्रीलिंग शब्द चुनिए ।
(1) शील
(2) वज्र
(3) वसन्त
(4) भगदड़
29. ‘आपत्ति’ शब्द का विपरीतार्थक शब्द निम्नांकित विकल्पों में चुनिए ।
(1) अनापत्ति
(2) तटस्थता
(3) सम्मति
(4) उदासीनता,
30. ‘उज्जयिनी’ में कौन सा उपसर्ग है? निम्नलिखित विकल्पों में से छाँटिए :
(1) उत्
(2) उप
(3) अप
(4) अपि
31. Which State will become the first Indian state to link exams with Adhar Card?
(1) Odisha
(2) Kerala
(3) Goa
(4) Bihar
32. Which one of the following has recommended the creation of the office of ‘Lokpal’?
(1) Inter-State Council
(2) National Police Commission
(3) States Reorganisation Commission
(4) Administrative Reforms Commission
33. Match each of the following Nobel Prize Winners of 2016 with the discipline in which they have received the prize.
|
Names |
Discipline |
||
| (a) | David Thouless, Duncan Haldane and Michael kosterltiz | (i) | Medicine |
| (b) | Yoshonori Ohsumi | (ii) | Economics |
| (c) | Bernard Feringa, Jean-Pierre and Fraser Stoddart | (iii) | Physics |
| (d) | Oliver Hart and Bengt Holstorm | (iv) | Chemsitry |
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
34. Who has been awarded the V. Shantaram life-time achievement award at Mumbai International Film Festival, Mumbai (2016)?
(1) Kabir Bedi
(2) Manoj Kumar
(3) Ashutosh Gowariker
(4) Naresh Bedi
35. The Kalinga Prize is given by which of the following?
(1) Government of Odisha
(2) Biju Patnaik Foundation
(3) UNESCO
(4) Council for Science and Industrial Research
36. The Working language/s of the UNESCO is/are:
(1) English, French and Russian
(2) English Only
(3) French only
(4) English and French
37. Who has won the gold medal in Men’s Single Tennis in Rio Olympics 2016?
(1) Rafal Nadal
(2) Andy Murray
(3) Novak Djokovie
(4) Del Potro
38. The Supreme Court guidelines issued in the ‘Visakha Case’ pertain to:
(1) Sexual harassment at workplace
(2) Domestic Violence
(3) Rape and Sexual Violence
(4) Trafficking in Women
39. Who became the youngest Grand Master in India?
(1) Parimarjan Negi
(2) Viswanath Anand
(3) Dibendu Barua
(4) R. Praggynandhaa
40. Who among the following Indian Cricketers has won the Arjuna Award in 2016?
(1) Manoj Tiwary
(2) Robbin Uthappa
(3) Sreenath Arvind
(4) Ajinkya Rahane
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41. Jawaharlal Nehru Award is given for:
(1) Social Work
(2) Government Service
(3) Literary Work
(4) International Understanding
42. Man Booker International Prize 2015 was won by:
(1) Malala Yousafzai
(2) Alice Munvo
(3) Laszlo Krasznahorkai
(4) Lydia Davis
43. In Rio Olympics 2016 which country finished at the top of the table with gold medals?
(1) Russia
(2) USA
(3) China
(4) Great Britain
44. Which one of the following is autobiography of Mary Kom?
(1) True Colours
(2) Playing It My Way
(3) Truth Always Prevails
(4) Unbreakable
45. The Paris Agreement on climate change that came into effect in November 2016 deals with:
(1) Green house gases emissions mitigation
(2) Reduction in fossil fuel usage
(3) CO2 emissions mitigation
(4) Reduction in Uranium production
46. From among the following which female badminton player got silver medal at Rio Olympics?
(1) Neha Pandit
(2) Saina Nehwal
(3) P.C. Thulasi
(4) P.V. Sindhu
47. Bouncing of cheques has become an offence now. What is the punishment at present for the same?
(1) Three year imprisonment
(2) Six month imprisonment
(3) One year imprisonment
(4) two year imprisonment
48. Where has the world’s largest single roof top solar power plant been inaugurated recently?
(1) Jodhpur
(2) Amritsar
(3) California
(4) Spain
49. In which field did Andrew Wiles win the Abel Prize (2016)?
(1) Archaeology
(2) Maths
(3) Science and Medicine
(4) Art and Culture
50. Which state government launched the new facilities of virtual and digital classroom in ITI’s on the occasion of world youth skills day?
(1) Goa
(2) Bihar
(3) Madhya Pradesh
(4) Maharashtra
Direction: In question no. 51 to 53 as statement is followed by two conclusions/course of action I and II. Decide which conclusion/course of action can logically be drawn, if we consider that the information given in the statement is true in all respects.
51. Statement:
To maintain law and order in country, Police department need major reforms, Present Working condition of policemen are not good.
Course of Action:
(I) More facilities like, well equipped vehicles, latest arms and ammunition, better salary should be provided to policemen.
(II) Man force at police services should be increased.
(1) If neither (I) nor (II) follows.
(2) If only (I) follows.
(3) If only (II) follows.
(4) If either (I) or (II) follows.
52. Statement:
India is a Secular Country.
Conclusions:
(I) All Indians enjoy some rights irrespective of their religion.
(II) Indian Constitution doesn’t believe in religion.
(1) If neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
(2) If Only Conclusion (I) follows
(3) If Only Conclusion (II) follows
(4) If both Conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
53. Statement:
Music not only entertains but also improves mental health.
Conclusions:
(I) Music is a source of entertainment.
(II) To keep yourself mentally fit you should listen to music.
(1) If neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
(2) If Only Conclusion (I) follows
(3) If Only Conclusion (II) follows
(4) If both Conclusions (I) and (II) follow
54. Five friends A, B, C, D and E are sitting close to each other at an equal distance. A is sitting to the North of B and C is sitting to East of D. E is sitting to the West of B and D is sitting to the South of E, then in which directions is C sitting with respect to A?
(1) West
(2) North
(3) South
(4) East
55. If the positions of the first and fifth digits (from right hand side) in the number 72103426 are interchanged, similarly the positions of second and sixth digits are interchanged and so on for third and seventh digits also, then what should be the product of the sum of first two and last two digit?
(1) 15
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 12
56. In a clock at 6:15 am, hour needle is in North-East direction. In which direction would be minute needle at 12:45 pm?
(1) South West
(2) North East
(3) South East
(4) North West
57. Salmaan and Aamir like Harmonium and Piano, Aamir and Akshay like Flute and Sitar, Shahrukh and Varun like Piano and Tabla but Salmaan, Akshay and Varun like Guitar?
Who likes Flute, Sitar and Guitar?
(1) Salmaan
(2) Aamir
(3) Akshay
(4) Varun
58. Identify the Diagram which best represent the classes given below:
Year, Month, Week
Directions: In Question no. 59 to 61 Select the related word/number/figure from the given alternatives.
59.
60. Andhra Pradesh : Telangana :: ? : Haryana.
(1) Punjab
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) New Delhi
61. 100 : 10 :: ? : .001
(1) 0.01
(2) 10
(3) 1
(4) 0.1
62. When is ‘Human Rights Day’ observed every year?
(1) December 28
(2) December 10
(3) December 8
(4) December 25
63. FIFA World Cup 2018 will be held in:
(1) Qatar
(2) France
(3) Netherlands
(4) Russia
64. Who has been selected for Bharat Ratna Randit Bhimsen Joshi Classical Music Award for 2015-16?
(1) Manohar Shukla
(2) Shiv Kumar Sharma
(3) Pandit Ram Narayan
(4) Jasraj Pandit
65. Kalinga Award is given for:
(1) Sports
(2) Art
(3) Literature
(4) Science
66. In 2016, which Island has been declared to be the largest River Island in the world?
(1) Dibru Saikhowa, Assam
(2) Bratislava, Slovakia
(3) Majuli, Assam
(4) Csepel Island, Hungary
67. What was the position of India in terms of medal tally at the recently concluded Rio Olympics?
(1) 67th
(2) 48th
(3) 51st
(4) 70th
68. The 2020 Summer Olympics will be held in:
(1) Seoul
(2) London
(3) Tokyo
(4) Doha
69. Currently how many member countries are there in the UN?
(1) 197
(2) 190
(3) 193
(4) 196
70. Which among the Following novels won the Pulitzer Prize for fiction in 2016?
(1) To kill a Mockingbird
(2) The road
(3) The Sympathizer
(4) The Old Man and The Sea
71. The Largest exporter of cotton textiles in the world is:
(1) Japan
(2) USA
(3) China
(4) India
Direction: In question no. 72 to 74 chooses the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the number/letters/figure series.
72.
73. 2, 3, 14, 29, 50, ….?….
(1) 72
(2) 75
(3) 77
(4) 69
74. ABDG, CDFL, EFHK, GHJM?
(1) JKMP
(2) IKMP
(3) IJLO
(4) IJLN
75. After starting from her school, Sheela walked 2 Km towards East, then turns towards her left and walked 2 Km more. She took left turn again and walked for 2 Km. Now, in which direction is she standing from her school and at what distance?
(1) 2 Km, South
(2) 4 Km, North
(3) 4 Km, East
(4) 2 Km, North
76. If ‘S’denotes ‘+’, ‘D’ denotes ‘-‘, ‘P’ denotes ‘X’ and ‘Q’ denotes ‘+’ then the value of following equation is:
5P6Q1558D5=?
(1) 10
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
77. In a class of 45 students Reema Secured 12th rank in the class but her best friend Sona secured three ranks below her. What is the rank of Sona in class from below?
(1) 33
(2) 30
(3) 31
(4) 28
78. Study the following diagram carefully:
Which regions of the diagram don’t show any lyricists?
(1) ACE
(2) ABC
(3) ABD
(4) ACD
79. Which of the three cubes given below can be created by folding the given design?
(1) All (I), (II) and (III) can be formed.
(2) Only (I) can be formed.
(3) Only (II) and (III) can be formed
(4) Only (III) can be formed
80. The diagram given below represents the students who study Physical Education, Music, Sanskrit and Psychology. Study the diagram and identify the region which represents students who study Psychology as well as Music but not Sanskrit and Physical Education.
(1) A + B + F + E
(2) F
(3) A + B
(4) A + F + B
81. If in a certain code language MUSICIAN is written as OSUGEGCL then how can DIRECTOR be written in that Code?
(1) FGTCERQP
(2) FKTGEVQT
(3) FGTGEUQT
(4) FGUDERQP
82. In certain code language MUSIC is written as +% SITAR is written as 
How will ARTIST be written in same code language?
83. Select the correct combination of numbers to form a meaningful word.
G E S N I R
1 2 3 4 5 6
(1) 365421
(2) 325146
(3) 354126
(4) 452631
Direction: In question no. 84 and 85 select the one word which is different from the other than alternatives.
84.
(1) Football
(2) Cricket
(3) Hockey
(4) Volleyball
85.
(1) Newspaper
(2) E-mail
(3) Telephone
(4) Mobile phone
86. Select the correct combination mathematical signs to replace * Signs and to balance the following equation:
9 * 3 * 6 = 24 * 12
(1) X + +
(2) – + –
(3) + – –
(4) + + –
87. Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given statement in a manner that make the conclusions F > T and U < E definitely true?
Statement: F_L_U_T_E
(1) > = = <
(2) <= = >
(3) > = = >
(4) < = = <
88. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed by using the letters in the given word.
MASTERMIND
(1) STAND
(2) SAINT
(3) SISTER
(4) SATIN
89. Pointing to a boy, a man said. “His mother is only daughter of my father.” How is that man related to the boy’s mother?
(1) Son
(2) Husband
(3) Father
(4) Brother
90. In a certain code language, ‘De Va ni’ means ‘music is life’, ‘ni ko va’ means ‘life is beautiful’, ‘va su te’ means ‘ live long life’. Which of the following means ‘beautiful’?
(1) De
(2) ni
(3) ko
(4) Va
Answer Key:
|
Q. No. |
Ans. |
Q. No. |
Ans. |
|
1 |
1 |
46 |
4 |
|
2 |
4 |
47 |
4 |
|
3 |
4 |
48 |
2 |
|
4 |
4 |
49 |
2 |
|
5 |
3 |
50 |
4 |
|
6 |
2 |
51 |
2 |
|
7 |
4 |
52 |
2 |
|
8 |
1 |
53 |
4 |
|
9 |
4 |
54 |
3 |
|
10 |
1 |
55 |
2 |
|
11 |
1 |
56 |
3 |
|
12 |
1 |
57 |
3 |
|
13 |
4 |
58 |
2 |
|
14 |
1 |
59 |
4 |
|
15 |
2 |
60 |
1 |
|
16 |
2 |
61 |
1 |
|
17 |
4 |
62 |
2 |
|
18 |
1 |
63 |
4 |
|
19 |
4 |
64 |
3 |
|
20 |
2 |
65 |
4 |
|
21 |
1 |
66 |
3 |
|
22 |
4 |
67 |
1 |
|
23 |
4 |
68 |
3 |
|
24 |
3 |
69 |
3 |
|
25 |
1 |
70 |
3 |
|
26 |
3 |
71 |
4 |
|
27 |
3 |
72 |
1 |
|
28 |
4 |
73 |
3 |
|
29 |
1 |
74 |
3 |
|
30 |
1 |
75 |
4 |
|
31 |
4 |
76 |
3 |
|
32 |
4 |
77 |
3 |
|
33 |
1 |
78 |
3 |
|
34 |
4 |
79 |
1 |
|
35 |
3 |
80 |
2 |
|
36 |
4 |
81 |
1 |
|
37 |
2 |
82 |
1 |
|
38 |
1 |
83 |
3 |
|
39 |
1 |
84 |
2 |
|
40 |
4 |
85 |
1 |
|
41 |
4 |
86 |
2 |
|
42 |
3 |
87 |
1 |
|
43 |
2 |
88 |
3 |
|
44 |
4 |
89 |
4 |
|
45 |
1 |
90 |
3 |
In order to clear any competitive examination, practicing the previous year’s papers can be considered necessary. Some aspirants are still in doubt and do not feel to solving the previous year’s papers is beneficial at all. Here are some benefits which might be convince you to refer to previous year question papers:
- Knowing the exam pattern: Aspirants while solving the KVS Primary Teacher previous year question papers will become familiar with the exam pattern. Although the KVS Primary Teacher Exam Pattern is available everywhere, you can get the actual idea of the exam pattern only after you solve the question paper.
- The difficulty level of the paper: Aspirants while solving the previous year’s paper for the KVS Primary Teacher Exam will be able to have an idea about the difficulty level of questions included in the main exam.
- How much preparation is required: Aspirants while solving the KVS Primary Teacher Question Papers will also be able to know their actual standing i.e. whether they are able to solve questions or not and how much they need to prepare in order to excel in the examination.
- Time Management: While solving KVS Primary Teacher’s previous year’s papers or mocks, aspirants will be able to improve their time management skills. Aspirants should try to solve the maximum number of questions in the minimum time possible with more accuracy.
Preparation Tips for KVS PRT Question Paper 2022
Aspirants can refer to several study materials for the right KVS Primary Teacher Exam preparation but the KVS PRT question papers are helpful in preparing well for the exam. Here are some of the preparation tips for KVS Primary Teacher Questions Papers:
- Complete the syllabus first: The KVS Primary Teacher previous year’s question papers are based on the complete KVS Syllabus. Aspirants must first complete the syllabus before choosing KVS Primary Teacher last year’s question papers for perfect preparation for the exam.
- Learn Time management – Make sure to schedule your KVS Primary Teacher question papers within a given time frame. Time management is an important factor in the KVS PRT Exam and by practicing previous year’s papers for KVS Primary Teacher, aspirants can enhance their time management skills.
- Include plenty of question papers: While preparing for the exam one or two KVS Primary Teacher’s previous year’s question papers are not sufficient. Aspirants must include at least 4 to 5 question papers at the time of preparation.
Exam Analysis of KVS PRT Exam
Aspirants applying for the KVS Primary Teacher exam can check the exam analysis of KVS PRT previous year question papers. This will help them analyze the difficulty level of the next KVS Primary Teacher paper 2022 exam. Check the below-mentioned overall exam analysis of KVS Primary Teacher question papers:
| Part-I Section of KVS PRT Exam | ||
| Subjects | No. of Questions Asked | Difficulty Level |
| General English | 10 Questions | Moderate to Difficult |
| General Hindi | 10 Questions | Moderate to Difficult |
| Part-II Section of KVS PRT 2018 Exam | ||
| General knowledge & Current Affairs | 10 Questions | Easy to Difficult |
| Reasoning Ability | 10 Questions | Easy to Moderate |
| Computer Literacy | 10 Questions | Easy to Moderate |
| Pedagogy | 20 Questions | Difficult |
| Subject concerned | 80 Questions | Moderate to Difficult |
| Total | Easy to Difficult | |
KVS Exam Pattern 2022
In the previous Year, KVS had released 3000 Vacancies for the Primary Teacher (PRT) and PRT (music) post.Here We have given previous year’s question paper in English.
KVS Exam Pattern For PRT
| TEST | SUBJECTS | NUMBER OF QUESTIONS | TOTAL MARKS | DURATION OF THE TEST |
| PAPER I | General English | 10 | 10 | 150 Minutes |
| General Hindi | 10 | 10 | ||
| PAPER-II | General Knowledge & Current Affairs | 10 | 10 | |
| Reasoning | 10 | 10 | ||
| Computer Literacy | 10 | 10 | ||
| Pedagogy | 20 | 20 | ||
| Subject Concerned | 80 | 80 | ||
| Total | 150 | 150 | 150 |
Even if you have memorized all the topics in the syllabus, rehearsed the previous year’s question papers, taken several practice exams, and revised the subject matter in advance of the exam, your performance will benefit from having confidence. You’re now prepared to take the KVS Primary Teacher exam, but remember to remain composed and collected throughout the test. Support yourself and the first attempt by solving all the areas you are certain of. In the exam hall, don’t panic if the paper seems challenging; if it’s challenging for you, it probably is for everyone else as well. The key is to approach the paper with a calm mind and confidence in oneself. Download the Entri app to get the best coaching for all the government teaching exams of 2022.
