Table of Contents
Mock tests are the fastest way to turn your preparation into marks. This page explains the TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts mock test 2026 series on the Entri app, how each test follows the real exam pattern, and gives you a free 30-question sample mock test with answers to try right now.
The mock tests are built for the Combined Technical Services Examination (Interview Posts) (Notification No. 8/2026, Advertisement No. 741), which has 170 tentative vacancies in 31 posts. The written exam is a Computer Based Test (CBT), so practising on screen is part of your preparation.
Last date to apply: 6 October 2026, 11:59 PM. The exam date has not been announced. Start taking tests now, so that you know your weak units well before the exam.
For the syllabus and books, see the TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts Study Material 2026.
TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts Mock Test 2026: Why You Need Them
- Part A is a gate. Without 60 marks (40%) in the Tamil Eligibility Test, your other papers are not evaluated, so you should know your Part A score early.
- Speed matters. Paper I has 200 questions in 3 hours and Paper II has 200 questions in 3 hours, which is roughly 54 seconds per question.
- The exam is on a computer. A CBT screen feels different from a printed book.
- Paper II is 300 marks. Subject-wise tests show which units to revise.
- Mocks find weak spots. An error log from your tests tells you exactly what to study next.
TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts 2026 – Exam Pattern Your Mock Test Should Match
- The exam is objective type.
- Part B and Part C questions are in English and Tamil.
- Minimum qualifying marks: 60 in Part A, and 135 (reserved categories) or 180 (Others) out of 450 for Part B and Part C of Paper I plus Paper II.
- The notification does not mention negative marking. Check the exam-day instructions for updates.
| Part | Standard | Questions | Marks | Time |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Paper I, Part A: Tamil Eligibility Test | SSLC | 100 | 150 (qualifying: 60) | 3 hours for Paper I |
| Paper I, Part B: General Studies | Degree | 75 | 150 (Parts B and C together) | |
| Paper I, Part C: Aptitude and Mental Ability | SSLC | 25 | ||
| Paper II: Subject Paper | Degree / PG Degree | 200 | 300 | 3 hours |
| Paper II for English / Tamil Reporter: Stenography | Diploma | 100 | 300 | 1½ hours |
| Interview | 60 |
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Enroll Now!Mock Tests on Entri for TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts 2026
Entri’s TNPSC CTSE mock tests are designed to follow the pattern and syllabus of the notification, so you practise the same structure you will face on exam day.
| Mock Test Series | Link |
| Series 1 | |
| Series 2 | |
| Series 3 | |
| Series 4 |
Model Questions for TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts 2026 – 30 Questions with Answers
This is a short practice test in the style of the exam: 8 Tamil Eligibility Test questions, 14 General Studies questions and 8 Aptitude and Reasoning questions. Give yourself 27 minutes (about 54 seconds per question). Each question carries 1.5 marks in the real exam pattern, so the total here is 45 marks. These are practice questions based on the syllabus, not actual exam questions.
Part A: Tamil Eligibility Test (8 questions)
Q1. “உயர்வு” என்பதன் எதிர்ச்சொல் எது?
(a) தாழ்வு
(b) மேன்மை
(c) சிறப்பு
(d) பெருமை
Q2. சரியான வினைமுற்றைத் தேர்ந்தெடுக்க: மாடுகள் புல் _____.
(a) மேய்ந்தது
(b) மேய்ந்தன
(c) மேய்ந்தான்
(d) மேய்கிறாய்
Q3. “Gene” என்பதற்கு இணையான தமிழ்ச்சொல்:
(a) நொதி
(b) புரதம்
(c) மரபணு
(d) குருதி
Q4. “Allergy” என்பதற்கு இணையான தமிழ்ச்சொல்:
(a) ஒவ்வாமை
(b) காய்ச்சல்
(c) தடுப்பூசி
(d) தொற்று
Q5. “Search engine” என்பதற்கு இணையான தமிழ்ச்சொல்:
(a) செய்தித்தாள்
(b) தேடுபொறி
(c) தரவுத்தளம்
(d) இணையம்
Q6. “Nautical mile” என்பதற்கு இணையான தமிழ்ச்சொல்:
(a) நில மைல்
(b) வான் மைல்
(c) கடல் மைல்
(d) கல் தொலைவு
Q7. திருக்குறளில் உள்ள அதிகாரங்களின் எண்ணிக்கை:
(a) 100
(b) 133
(c) 150
(d) 1330
Q8. ஓரெழுத்து ஒரு மொழியான “ஆ” என்பதன் பொருள்:
(a) பசு
(b) மாதம்
(c) நெருப்பு
(d) கொடு
Part B: General Studies (14 questions)
Q9. Which of the following words was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment?
(a) Sovereign
(b) Socialist
(c) Republic
(d) Democratic
Q10. The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which Amendment?
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 73rd
(d) 86th
Q11. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment relates to:
(a) Municipalities
(b) Panchayati Raj
(c) Anti-defection
(d) Right to Education
Q12. Article 21 of the Constitution guarantees:
(a) Freedom of speech
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to life and personal liberty
(d) Right to equality
Q13. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) came into effect in India on:
(a) 1 April 2016
(b) 1 July 2017
(c) 1 January 2018
(d) 1 April 2019
Q14. The Reserve Bank of India was established in:
(a) 1921
(b) 1935
(c) 1949
(d) 1969
Q15. NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission in:
(a) 2010
(b) 2012
(c) 2015
(d) 2018
Q16. The Finance Commission is constituted under which Article of the Constitution?
(a) Article 112
(b) Article 148
(c) Article 280
(d) Article 324
Q17. The Self-Respect Movement was started by Periyar E.V. Ramasamy in:
(a) 1916
(b) 1925
(c) 1937
(d) 1944
Q18. The Justice Party was formally known as:
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) South Indian Liberal Federation
(c) Dravida Kazhagam
(d) Swaraj Party
Q19. The Thirukkural is divided into three parts. Aram and Porul are two of them. What is the third?
(a) Inbam
(b) Neethi
(c) Paal
(d) Veeram
Q20. V.O. Chidambaranar is associated with:
(a) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company
(b) Servants of India Society
(c) Home Rule League
(d) Indian National Army
Q21. Which monsoon brings most of the annual rainfall to Tamil Nadu?
(a) South-West monsoon
(b) North-East monsoon
(c) Western disturbance
(d) Pre-monsoon showers
Q22. Which is the most abundant gas in the Earth’s atmosphere?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Argon
Part C: Aptitude and Reasoning (8 questions)
Q23. What is 25% of 480?
(a) 100
(b) 110
(c) 120
(d) 130
Q24. The LCM of 12, 18 and 24 is:
(a) 36
(b) 48
(c) 72
(d) 144
Q25. The HCF of 36 and 84 is:
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24
Q26. Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5 and their sum is 160. The larger number is:
(a) 60
(b) 80
(c) 100
(d) 120
Q27. The simple interest on ₹5,000 at 8% per annum for 3 years is:
(a) ₹1,000
(b) ₹1,200
(c) ₹1,400
(d) ₹1,600
Q28. The compound interest on ₹10,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years is:
(a) ₹2,000
(b) ₹2,100
(c) ₹2,200
(d) ₹2,400
Q29. A can complete a work in 12 days and B can complete it in 6 days. Working together, they will finish it in:
(a) 3 days
(b) 4 days
(c) 6 days
(d) 9 days
Q30. Find the next number in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(a) 36
(b) 40
(c) 42
(d) 44
Answer Key and Explanations
| Q | Answer | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | (a) தாழ்வு | உயர்வு (high) is the opposite of தாழ்வு (low) |
| 2 | (b) மேய்ந்தன | “மாடுகள்” is plural (அஃறிணை பன்மை), so the verb ends in “-ன” |
| 3 | (c) மரபணு | Gene = மரபணு |
| 4 | (a) ஒவ்வாமை | Allergy = ஒவ்வாமை |
| 5 | (b) தேடுபொறி | Search engine = தேடுபொறி |
| 6 | (c) கடல் மைல் | Nautical mile = கடல் மைல் |
| 7 | (b) 133 | The Thirukkural has 133 chapters, with 10 couplets each (1,330 couplets) |
| 8 | (a) பசு | “ஆ” means cow (பசு) |
| 9 | (b) Socialist | The 42nd Amendment (1976) added Socialist, Secular and Integrity |
| 10 | (a) 42nd | Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment (1976) |
| 11 | (b) Panchayati Raj | The 73rd Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj |
| 12 | (c) Right to life and personal liberty | Article 21 |
| 13 | (b) 1 July 2017 | GST rollout date |
| 14 | (b) 1935 | RBI was established in 1935 |
| 15 | (c) 2015 | NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission on 1 January 2015 |
| 16 | (c) Article 280 | The Finance Commission is under Article 280 |
| 17 | (b) 1925 | Periyar started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 |
| 18 | (b) South Indian Liberal Federation | The Justice Party was formed in 1916 as the South Indian Liberal Federation |
| 19 | (a) Inbam | The three parts are Aram, Porul and Inbam |
| 20 | (a) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company | V.O.C. founded it in 1906 |
| 21 | (b) North-East monsoon | Tamil Nadu receives most of its rain from the North-East monsoon |
| 22 | (c) Nitrogen | About 78% of the atmosphere |
| 23 | (c) 120 | 25% of 480 = 120 |
| 24 | (c) 72 | LCM of 12, 18, 24 = 72 |
| 25 | (b) 12 | 36 = 2²×3², 84 = 2²×3×7, so HCF = 12 |
| 26 | (c) 100 | 160 ÷ 8 = 20, so the larger part is 5 × 20 = 100 |
| 27 | (b) ₹1,200 | (5000 × 8 × 3) ÷ 100 = 1,200 |
| 28 | (b) ₹2,100 | 10,000 × (1.1)² − 10,000 = 12,100 − 10,000 = 2,100 |
| 29 | (b) 4 days | 1/12 + 1/6 = 1/4 per day, so 4 days |
| 30 | (c) 42 | Differences are 4, 6, 8, 10, so the next is +12: 30 + 12 = 42 |
TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts 2026 – Paper 2 Model Questions (Subject Paper Practice)
Paper II depends on your post, so here are a few illustrative practice questions from some of the subject papers. Take the full subject-wise mocks on the Entri app for your own paper.
Q1 (Veterinary Science, Code 396). Frozen bull semen for artificial insemination is stored in liquid nitrogen at about:
(a) −20°C
(b) −80°C
(c) −196°C
(d) −273°C
Answer: (c). Liquid nitrogen is at about −196°C.
Q2 (Veterinary Science, Code 396). The normal rectal temperature of an adult cow is approximately:
(a) 36.0°C
(b) 38.5°C
(c) 40.5°C
(d) 42.0°C
Answer: (b). About 38.5°C (101.5°F).
Q3 (Zoology and Medical Entomology, Code 567). Malaria in humans is transmitted by the bite of:
(a) Female Anopheles
(b) Female Aedes
(c) Male Culex
(d) Sandfly
Answer: (a). Female Anopheles mosquitoes.
Q4 (Zoology and Medical Entomology, Code 567). The principal vector of dengue is:
(a) Anopheles stephensi
(b) Aedes aegypti
(c) Culex quinquefasciatus
(d) Phlebotomus argentipes
Answer: (b). Aedes aegypti.
Q5 (Zoology and Medical Entomology, Code 567). Japanese Encephalitis is mainly transmitted by:
(a) Culex
(b) Aedes
(c) Tsetse fly
(d) Housefly
Answer: (a). Culex mosquitoes (Culex tritaeniorhynchus).
Q6 (Statistics, Codes 504 and 564). The arithmetic mean of 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10 is:
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer: (b). Sum = 30, divided by 5 = 6.
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Enroll Now!TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts Mock Test 2026 – How to Use It Well
Before the test
- Take the test in a quiet place on a computer or laptop, at the same time of day as the real exam.
- Keep a timer and don’t pause.
- Keep scratch paper for calculations.
During the test
- Do Part C and easy Part B questions first, then Tamil, then harder questions.
- Mark and move on any question that takes more than a minute.
- Do a second pass on marked questions.
After the test (most important)
- Check every wrong answer and every guess.
- Record each mistake in an error log: unit, question, reason (concept gap, careless, time) and correct concept.
- Re-take the weak units’ tests 3 days later.
- Track your scores in a table.
TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts Interview Mock Test 2026
After the written exam, the interview of 60 marks tests your personality, bearing, aptitude, general knowledge and technical knowledge. Practise with questions such as:
- Tell us about yourself and your qualification.
- Why do you want this post? What do you know about the department?
- A scenario from your subject: what would you do?
- Name a recent Tamil Nadu government scheme in your field.
- What are the challenges in this role and how would you handle them?
Ask a friend or mentor to play the interviewer, and practise in both Tamil and English. See the job rofile of your post to link your answers to the real work.
Common Mock Test Mistakes – TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts 2026
- Taking mocks without reviewing the mistakes
- Skipping Part A mocks because your subject is strong
- Not timing yourself
- Taking too many mocks without revising the weak units in between
- Only taking Paper I mocks and leaving Paper II for later
- Judging your preparation by one test score
Start Your Mock Tests on Entri
Take the TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts mock tests on the Entri app, then analyse your scores and revise your weak units. Combine them with study material and previous year question papers for a full preparation.
Download the Entri app and take your first TNPSC CTSE mock test today.
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Enroll Now!Frequently Asked Questions
Are TNPSC CTSE Interview Posts mock tests available?
Yes. Entri has mock tests based on the notification pattern and syllabus. See the section above for details.
How many questions are in a full Paper I mock?
200 questions: Part A (100), Part B (75) and Part C (25), in 3 hours.
How many questions are in a Paper II mock?
200 questions in 3 hours. For Stenography it is 100 questions in 1½ hours.
How often should I take mock tests?
Take unit tests while learning, sectional tests every week during revision, and full-length mocks every week in the final phase.
What is the minimum qualifying mark for the written exam?
135 out of 450 for the reserved categories and 180 for Others, plus 60 in Part A.
Do I need a separate mock for my Paper II subject?
Yes. Choose the mock for your own subject paper, for example the Veterinary Science paper for Veterinary Assistant Surgeon.
