Table of Contents
Solving a CTET model question paper is the fastest way to check your preparation in the weeks before the exam. The 22nd CTET is now scheduled for 12th and 13th December 2026. This page gives you a full-length practice set for Paper 1 (Classes 1–5) and Paper 2 (Classes 6–8), with a complete answer key and short explanations.
All questions here are original, written to follow the CTET pattern and difficulty. They are not copied from any CBSE paper. If you want the real, officially released papers, use our CTET previous year question papers.
What’s in This CTET Model Paper
| Part | Questions | Best for |
|---|---|---|
| Paper 1: CDP, English (Language I), Maths, EVS | 20 | Aspirants for Classes 1–5 |
| Paper 2: CDP, English (Language I), Maths, Science, Social Studies | 25 | Aspirants for Classes 6–8 |
| Answer key + explanations | 45 | Everyone |
Language II follows the same format in the language you choose, so it isn’t repeated here. Not sure which languages CBSE offers? See our guide on how many languages the CTET exam is conducted in.
CTET 2026 Exam Pattern Followed in This Model Paper
1: The first recipient of the ‘Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna’ award?
| Paper 1 (Classes I–V) | Paper 2 (Classes VI–VIII) | |
|---|---|---|
| Child Development & Pedagogy | 30 | 30 |
| Language I | 30 | 30 |
| Language II | 30 | 30 |
| Maths | 30 | 60 (Maths & Science teachers) |
| EVS | 30 | or Social Studies: 60 |
| Total | 150 marks | 150 marks |
Both papers are 2 hours 30 minutes, with four options per question and no negative marking. The qualifying mark is 60% for General candidates, with a 55% relaxation for reserved categories. For subject-wise topics, see the CTET syllabus and exam pattern.
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Join Now!How to Attempt CTET Model Question Paper 2026
- Give yourself about 1 minute per question: 20 minutes for Paper 1, 25 minutes for Paper 2.
- Don’t open the answer key until you finish.
- Attempt every question, since there is no negative marking.
- Paper 2 candidates should attempt Sections A, B and either C + D (Maths & Science) or E (Social Studies). Attempt all 25 if you want extra practice.
CTET Model Question Paper 2026: Paper 1 (Classes 1–5)
Section A: Child Development & Pedagogy
1. A child understands that the amount of water stays the same when it is poured into a taller, thinner glass. According to Piaget, this child is in the:
(A) Sensorimotor stage
(B) Preoperational stage
(C) Concrete operational stage
(D) Formal operational stage
2. Vygotsky’s “Zone of Proximal Development” refers to:
(A) The distance between a learner’s school and home
(B) The gap between IQ score and school marks
(C) The gap between what a learner can do alone and what they can do with help from a more capable person
(D) The stage at which a learner stops learning
3. Which of the following is an example of formative assessment?
(A) Annual examination
(B) Board examination
(C) Entrance test
(D) Observing children during group work and giving feedback
4. Inclusive education means:
(A) Teaching children with disabilities in separate classes
(B) Admitting only high achievers
(C) Teaching all learners together while adapting to their diverse needs
(D) Conducting extra classes for weak learners
5. A child follows a classroom rule only to avoid punishment. In Kohlberg’s theory, this belongs to which level?
(A) Pre-conventional
(B) Conventional
(C) Post-conventional
(D) Sensorimotor
Section B: Language I (English)
Read the passage and answer questions 6–8.
Rani lived in a small village near a river. Every morning she walked two kilometres to fetch water. One day, she noticed that the river had become shallow. She told the villagers, and together they planted trees along the bank. After two years, the river flowed strongly again.
6. Why did Rani go to the river every morning?
(A) To swim
(B) To meet friends
(C) To plant trees
(D) To fetch water
7. What did Rani notice one day?
(A) The river had become shallow
(B) The village had no trees
(C) Her pot was broken
(D) The villagers were leaving
8. The opposite of “shallow” is:
(A) Narrow
(B) Wide
(C) Dry
(D) Deep
9. Which activity best develops listening skills in primary learners?
(A) Silent reading
(B) Grammar drills
(C) Copying from the board
(D) Story narration followed by questions
10. An approach that stresses learning language through meaningful use rather than memorising rules is:
(A) Grammar-translation method
(B) Rote method
(C) Communicative approach
(D) Dictation method
Section C: Mathematics
11. The place value of 7 in 4,57,382 is:
(A) 70
(B) 700
(C) 7,000
(D) 70,000
12. 3/4 + 1/8 = ?
(A) 4/12
(B) 4/8
(C) 1/2
(D) 7/8
13. The perimeter of a rectangle 12 cm long and 5 cm wide is:
(A) 17 cm
(B) 60 cm
(C) 34 cm
(D) 30 cm
14. One dozen pencils cost ₹60. What is the cost of 5 pencils?
(A) ₹20
(B) ₹25
(C) ₹30
(D) ₹35
15. Which is the best way to introduce fractions to Class 3 learners?
(A) Giving the formula first ‘
(B) Memorising definitions
(C) Textbook exercises only
(D) Using concrete materials like folded paper or rotis
Section D: Environmental Studies
16. Which of the following gives out its own light?
(A) Moon
(B) Mirror
(C) Sun
(D) Venus
17. Which organ is mainly responsible for the exchange of gases during breathing?
(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Kidney
(D) Stomach
18. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Natural gas
(D) Solar energy
19. Plants take in which gas for photosynthesis?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide
20. Which approach is most suitable for teaching EVS at the primary level?
(A) Lecture only
(B) Rote memorisation
(C) Activity-based learning with observation and field visits
(D) Dictating notes
CTET Model Question Paper 2026: Paper 2 (Classes 6–8)
Section A: Child Development & Pedagogy
21. A Class 7 learner can reason about “what if” situations that they have never experienced. This is typical of Piaget’s:
(A) Formal operational stage
(B) Concrete operational stage
(C) Preoperational stage
(D) Sensorimotor stage
22. The theory of Multiple Intelligences was proposed by Howard Gardner. Which option names this theory?
(A) Zone of proximal development
(B) Operant conditioning
(C) Psychosocial stages
(D) Multiple intelligences
23. The “Law of Effect” was given by:
(A) Pavlov
(B) Skinner
(C) Thorndike
(D) Bandura
24. Which is an example of intrinsic motivation?
(A) Studying to win a prize
(B) Studying to avoid punishment
(C) Studying because the topic interests the learner
(D) Studying to please the teacher
25. The Right to Education Act, 2009 guarantees free and compulsory education for children aged:
(A) 3–14 years
(B) 5–15 years
(C) 6–14 years
(D) 6–18 years
Section B: Language I (English)
Read the passage and answer questions 26–28.
Trees do much more than provide shade. Their roots hold the soil together and prevent erosion during heavy rain. Their leaves absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen. In cities, trees also lower temperatures by cooling the air around them.
26. According to the passage, the roots of trees:
(A) Absorb carbon dioxide
(B) Hold the soil together and reduce erosion
(C) Release oxygen
(D) Lower city temperatures
27. Which part of a tree releases oxygen, according to the passage?
(A) Roots
(B) Trunk
(C) Leaves
(D) Branches
28. The word “erosion” most nearly means:
(A) Planting of new trees
(B) Flooding of rivers
(C) Drying of leaves
(D) Gradual wearing away of soil
29. Which practice best supports a learner who is shy about speaking English in class?
(A) Punishing every error
(B) Pair and small-group activities in a low-anxiety environment
(C) Banning the mother tongue
(D) Calling only on confident students
30. A language teacher should view learners’ errors as:
(A) Signs of carelessness
(B) Evidence of developing understanding that can guide feedback
(C) Behaviour to be punished
(D) Proof of low ability
Section C: Mathematics
31. The value of (−3) × (−4) + 5 is:
(A) 7
(B) −7
(C) −17
(D) 17
32. If 2x + 5 = 17, then x = ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 11
33. The area of a triangle with base 10 cm and height 6 cm is:
(A) 60 cm²
(B) 16 cm²
(C) 30 cm²
(D) 36 cm²
34. The simple interest on ₹2,000 at 5% per annum for 3 years is:
(A) ₹150
(B) ₹300
(C) ₹450
(D) ₹600
35. Which approach best promotes mathematical reasoning in Class 7?
(A) Memorising formulas
(B) Repetitive drill only
(C) Open-ended problems with discussion of different solution methods
(D) Copying solved examples
Section D: Science
36. Which gas is released when zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Chlorine
37. The SI unit of force is:
(A) Joule
(B) Watt
(C) Pascal
(D) Newton
38. Which part of the cell contains the genetic material?
(A) Cell wall
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Nucleus
(D) Vacuole
39. Which of the following is a chemical change?
(A) Rusting of iron
(B) Melting of ice
(C) Dissolving sugar in water
(D) Boiling of water
40. Which is the most effective way to help Class 8 learners understand conservation of energy?
(A) Textbook reading only
(B) Dictation
(C) Simple experiments and demonstrations followed by discussion
(D) Memorising definitions
Section E: Social Studies
41. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Lord Mountbatten
(C) Lord Wavell
(D) Dr Rajendra Prasad
42. The Constitution of India came into effect on:
(A) 15 August 1947
(B) 26 November 1949
(C) 26 January 1950
(D) 2 October 1950
43. Which river is known as the “Sorrow of Bihar”?
(A) Kosi
(B) Ganga
(C) Gandak
(D) Son
44. Which of the following is a primary sector activity?
(A) Banking
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Teaching
(D) Agriculture
45. Which approach makes history more meaningful for Class 7 learners?
(A) Memorising dates
(B) Lecturing without discussion
(C) Using sources, maps, timelines and role-play
(D) Copying answers
CTET 2026 Model Paper Answer Key with Explanations
Paper 1
| Q | Ans | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | Understanding conservation marks the concrete operational stage. |
| 2 | C | ZPD is the gap between independent and assisted performance. |
| 3 | D | Formative assessment is ongoing and gives feedback during learning. |
| 4 | C | Inclusion means learning together with support for diverse needs. |
| 5 | A | Obeying to avoid punishment is pre-conventional morality. |
| 6 | D | The passage states she walked to fetch water. |
| 7 | A | The river had become shallow. |
| 8 | D | Deep is the antonym of shallow. |
| 9 | D | Listening improves through purposeful listening tasks such as stories and follow-up questions. |
| 10 | C | The communicative approach focuses on meaningful use. |
| 11 | C | 7 is in the thousands place, so its value is 7,000. |
| 12 | D | 6/8 + 1/8 = 7/8. |
| 13 | C | 2 × (12 + 5) = 34 cm. |
| 14 | B | ₹60 ÷ 12 = ₹5 per pencil, so 5 pencils cost ₹25. |
| 15 | D | Young learners understand abstract ideas through concrete objects. |
| 16 | C | The Sun is luminous. The Moon, a mirror and Venus only reflect light. |
| 17 | B | Lungs carry out the exchange of gases. |
| 18 | D | Solar energy is renewable. The others are fossil fuels. |
| 19 | D | Plants take in CO₂ for photosynthesis. |
| 20 | C | EVS is best learned through observation and experience. |
Paper 2
| Q | Ans | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| 21 | A | Hypothetical reasoning belongs to the formal operational stage. |
| 22 | D | Gardner proposed the theory of multiple intelligences. |
| 23 | C | Thorndike gave the Law of Effect. |
| 24 | C | Intrinsic motivation comes from interest in the task itself. |
| 25 | C | The RTE Act covers ages 6–14. |
| 26 | B | The passage says roots hold soil and prevent erosion. |
| 27 | C | The passage says leaves release oxygen. |
| 28 | D | Erosion is the gradual wearing away of soil. |
| 29 | B | Low-anxiety group work builds confidence. |
| 30 | B | Errors are diagnostic information, not misbehaviour. |
| 31 | D | (−3) × (−4) = 12, and 12 + 5 = 17. |
| 32 | B | 2x = 12, so x = 6. |
| 33 | C | ½ × 10 × 6 = 30 cm². |
| 34 | B | (2000 × 5 × 3) ÷ 100 = ₹300. |
| 35 | C | Open-ended problems build reasoning rather than recall. |
| 36 | B | Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂↑ |
| 37 | D | Newton is the SI unit of force. |
| 38 | C | The nucleus holds the DNA. |
| 39 | A | Rusting forms a new substance (iron oxide). The others are physical changes. |
| 40 | C | Demonstrations followed by discussion make the concept concrete. |
| 41 | B | Lord Mountbatten was the first Governor-General of independent India. |
| 42 | C | The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950. |
| 43 | A | The Kosi is called the “Sorrow of Bihar” for its frequent floods. |
| 44 | D | Agriculture is a primary sector activity. |
| 45 | C | Sources, maps and role-play link the past to learners’ lives. |
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Join Now!How to Get the Most Out of CTET Model Question Papers
- Review every wrong answer and write one line on why you got it wrong: concept gap, careless slip or time pressure.
- Don’t memorise these questions. The real paper will test the same ideas in different wording.
- Repeat a model paper after 2–3 weeks to measure real improvement.
- Move to real papers last. Once your model-paper scores are steady, switch to the CTET previous year question papers for an exam-day simulation.
Practice More with Entri
Want structured practice beyond one set? Explore Entri’s CTET online coaching for live classes, topic-wise tests and doubt support.
Want structured practice beyond one set? Explore Entri’s CTET online coaching for live classes, topic-wise tests and doubt support.
Enroll in Kerala's Top-rated HSA Coaching Program!
സർക്കാർ ജോലി എന്ന സ്വപ്നം ഇനി സ്വപ്നം മാത്രമല്ല! Join Entri's HSA Coaching Program
Join Now!Frequently Asked Questions
What is a CTET model question paper?
It’s a practice paper designed on the official CTET pattern (150 MCQs, 150 marks, 2.5 hours). It uses fresh questions instead of real past ones.
Is a model paper the same as a previous year paper?
No. A model paper is written by educators to match the pattern, while a previous year paper contains the questions actually asked in a past session.
How many model papers should I solve before the exam?
Aim for 10–15 full-length papers, with proper analysis after each one. Analysis matters more than volume.
Which paper should I attempt, Paper 1 or Paper 2?
Paper 1 is for teaching Classes 1–5 and Paper 2 for Classes 6–8. You can attempt both if you’re eligible for both levels.
