Dear aspirants, get the new free mock test series for the upcoming SSC CGL 2022 online Tier I examination! Staff Selection Commission has released the notification for different Group B and Group C posts in different Ministries, Departments, Organizations. The notification, for the same, was released in December 2021. So, let us now Practice more mock tests for the Tier I exam. Know about the features of free mock tests for the Combined Graduate Level examination. Practice more mock exams to crack the exam.
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SSC CGL Free Mock Test 2022
SSC CGL mock test : It is important to practice as many mock tests available before attending the SSC CGL Preliminary and Mains examination. Because the mock tests will include the previous year’s questions and expected pattern questions. This will greatly help the candidate to transform the portions they learned to objective type questions. The idea about the new pattern of questions is also an important criterion for preparation. So, now check the SSC Combined Graduate Level exam details.
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Here is the SSC CGL mock test 2022, sample questions for the candidates to practice.
Quantitative Aptitude Mock test
In an organization, it is observed that every two employee share the newspaper “The Hindu” between them. Every three employee shared among them the newspaper “The Economic Times” and every four employee used to share “The Indian Express” from the library. But it is well there are only 182 newspaper came on daily basis. The number of employee in the organization:
- a) 162
- b) 168
- c) 96
- d) Cannot be determined.
A shopkeeper sold an article at a profit of 20%. If he had bought it at 20% less & sold it at Rs 80 less, then he earns a profit of 25%. Find the cost price of the article.
- a) 350
- b) 375
- c) 450
- d) 400
A rickshaw dealer buys 30 rickshaws for Rs.4725. Of these, 8 are four seaters and rests are two seaters. At what price must he sell the four seaters so that if he sells the two seaters at 3/4th of this price, he makes a profit of 40% on his outlay?
- a) Rs. 180
- b) Rs. 270
- c) Rs. 360
- d) Rs. 450
The difference between simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 4 per cent per annum is Rs. 1. The sum of money is:
- a) Rs. 600
- b) Rs. 625
- c) Rs. 560
- d) Rs. 650
Ram walks 40 km at 5 km/hr; he will be late by 1 hour and 20 minutes. If he walks at 8 km per hr, how early from the fixed time will he reach?
- a) 1 hour and 15 minutes
- b) 1 hour and 25 minutes
- c) 1 hour and 40minutes
- d) 1.5 hours
A Superfast train starts from Delhi station and reaches Agra 30 minutes late when it moves with 80 km hr and 48 minutes late when it goes 60 km hr. The distance between the two stations is:
- a) 32 km
- b) 38 km
- c) 36 km
- d) 42 km
18 women work 9 hour per day to complete 30% of the work in 30 day. The rest work is done by 9 women, working 9 hour per day. Then work did in how many days.
- a) 145
- b) 154
- c) 147
- d) 140
Out of 11 persons, 10 persons spent Rs. 35 each for their meals. The 11th one spent Rs. 40 more than the average expenditure of all the nine. The total money spent by all of them was:
- a) Rs. 492.50
- b) Rs. 497.50
- c) Rs. 429
- d) Rs. 498.50
Two friends work in same company and ratio of their salaries is 3 : 5. First friend gets promoted after a year and his salary is increased by one third of the salary of his friend. Find the ratio of their current salaries.
- a) 11 : 15
- b) 2 : 3
- c) 14 : 15
- d) None of these
Amit got thrice as many marks in Maths as in English. The proportion of his marks in Maths and History is 4:3. If his total marks in Maths, English and History are 250, what are his marks in English?
- a) 120
- b) 90
- c) 40
- d) 80
A and B are the centers of two circles with radius 9 cm and 14 cm respectively, whereas AB = 25 cm. C is the center of another circle with radius ‘X’ cm, which touches each of above circle externally. If ∠ACB=900 then find the value of X.
- a) 8
- b) 7
- c) 6
- d) 10
Ratio of number of sides of two regular polygons is 5: 6 and ratio of their each interior angle is in the ratio 24: 25. Then the no. of sides of these two polygon are
- a) 13, 15
- b) 10, 12
- c) 14, 16
- d) 8, 6
The total enrollment of college A in 2010 and 2012 is approximately what percentage of the total enrollment of 2011 and 2015?
- a) 90
- b) 110
- c) 117
- d) 125
For which college was the average annual enrolment is maximum in the given period?
- a) B
- b) C
- c) A
- d) Both A And c
What is the difference between the average enrolment of college B in 2011, 2013 and 2015 and the average enrolment of C in 2010, 2012 and 2014?
- a) 20
- b) 17
- c) 34
- d) 7
What was the approximate decline in enrollment in college A in 2013 as compared to the previous year?
- a) 35
- b) 18
- c) 45
- d) 40
What is the ratio between average enrollment of students of college A in the years 2011, 2013 and 2015 to the average of college C in the years 2010, 2012 and 2013?
- a) 12 : 13
- b) 16 : 19
- c) 21 : 22
- d) None of these
Ram packs sweets in such a way that if he packs 20 in each box, there would be 15 sweets left. If he packs 25 each, there would be 20 sweets left, if he packs 38 each, there would be 33 sweets left and if he packs 40 sweets in each box, there would be 35 sweets left. What is the minimum number of sweets the person have?
- a) 3795
- b) 4125
- c) 4250
- d) 3985
A shopkeeper sold a T.V. set for Rs. 17,940 with a discount of 8% and earned a profit of 19.6 %. What would have been the percentage of profit earned if no discount was offered?
- a) 25%
- b) 27%
- c) 30%
- d) 32%
A whole – seller allows a discount of 30 % on the list price to a retailer. The retailer sells at 10 % discount on the list price. If the customer paid Rs. 63 for an article, what profit is made by the retailer?
- a) Rs. 14
- b) Rs. 8
- c) Rs. 9
- d) Rs. 4
Rohan took loan from Bank of Baroda for his 2 years course of MBA. He took loan of Rs. 12 lakhs such that he would be charged at 8% per annum at compound interest during his course and at 10% compound interest after the completion of course. He returned half of the amount which he had to be paid on the completion of his studies and remaining after 2 years. What is the total amount returned by Rohan?
- a) 14,99,678
- b) 15,00,234
- c) 15, 46,646
- d) 13,99,786
- Simplify the following expression:
Ram travelled 40% of the time walking at a speed of 40 km/hr, 50% of the time in a bus at 60 km/hr and rest of the journey in a cab at 150 km/hr. What is the average speed of Sandeep over the entire journey?
- a) 72 km/hr
- b) 61 km/hr
- c) 92 km/hr
- d) 80 km/hr
A bus started its journey from Rohtak and reached Hisar in 45 minutes at its average speed of 120 km/hr. If the average speed of the bus is decreased by 12 km/hour, how much time will it take to cover the same distance?
- a) 40 minutes
- b) 38minutes
- c) 36 minutes
- d) 50 minutes
Two persons of varying skills can do a work in 6 days if they work together. If the first work alone for 4 days and then second work alone for 6 days, they would be left with of the whole work. How many days would it take the slower worker to complete the work working alone?
- a) 18
- b) 8
- c) 12
- d) 15
When a new person replaces a person of height 160 cm in group of 8 persons, the group’s average height goes up by 4 cm. What is the height of the new person?
- a) 180 cm
- b) 176 cm
- c) 192 cm
- d) 174 cm
The ages of Rahul and Sumit are in the ratio of 3: 7 respectively. After 5 years the ratio of their ages will be 1: 2. What is the difference in their ages?
- a) 2 years
- b) 8 years
- c) 20 years
- d) 12 years
Students in three classes in a school are in the ratio 2:4:5 and when 40 students are added in each class the ratio becomes 4:7:8. How many students were there initially in the class?
- a) 90
- b) 120
- c) 165
- d) 108
A circular pizza of radius 15 cm is to be shared by 6 people consisting of 4 children and 2 adults. Pizza is divided equally for individual child and similarly for adults, the area of the piece given to adults is 82.5 cm2. Find the angle contained by pizza slice of child.
- a) 690
- b) 460
- c) 830
- d) 380
The area of a circle having radius r is equal to that of a right triangle given that the base of the triangle is 4 times the radius. Find the ratio of altitude of triangle to the radius of circle.
- a) π∶2
- b) 1∶π
- c) 2∶ π
- d) None of these
A definite length of wire is used to make a square, an equilateral triangle and a circle such that their areas are equal. Which of the following will have a maximum wire leftover?
- a) Triangle
- b) Circle
- c) Square
- d) Equal for all
A circular frame is formed of a wire having circumference 48 cm. This frame is bent to form regular star shape with a number of pointed vertices. If angle of each vertex is 60ᵒ, what will be the length of one edge of the start?
- a) 6cm
- b) 8cm
- c) 4 cm
- d) 2.5 cm
If 55 units are manufactured and the selling and distribution cost on them amounts to Rs. 82500, then what should be the selling price per unit of the machine so that the manufacturer can earn a profit of 25%?
- a) 15,000
- b) 17,000
- c) 13,500
- d) 12,500
If the difference between the two costs are represented by 18º in the pie-chart, then these cost possibly are:
- a) Raw material and labour
- b) Advertising and capital
- c) Administration and capital
- d) Raw material and capital
If for the production of the machine, the cost of selling and distribution is Rs. 56250, then raw material and labour cost of machine will be:
- a) 1,31,000
- b) 1,25,000
- c) 1,31,250
- d) 1,43,500
Which two costs together have central angle of 1080?
- a) Raw material and labour
- b) Advertising and capital
- c) Administration and labour
- d) Raw material and selling and distribution
The price of the machine is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the machine is Rs. 14,400, then what is the cost of the advertising used in a single machine?
- a) 1500
- b) 1600
- c) 1000
- d) None of these
In a recent survey 60% houses contained two or more people. Of those remaining houses containing only one person 35% were having only a male. What is the percentage of all houses, which contain exactly one male or one female?
- a) 39%
- b) 53%
- c) 48%
- d) 26%
A dishonest shopkeeper sells milk at 25% gain and also he adds some water in the ratio 5:1 in it. What is his total profit?
- a) 50%
- b) 45%
- c) 40%
- d) 44%
Find out the distance travelled by a train coming from Y to X, if the distance between the two stations is 1550 km and the speed of train from X to Y travels at a speed of 70 km/hr and the speed of train from Y to X travels at a speed of 30 km/hr.
- a) 465 km
- b) 455 km
- c) 470 km
- d) 460 km
A scooter driver travels a distance in 10 hours. If half distance is travelled by 21 km/hr of speed and remaining distance is travelled by 24 km/hr of speed, then find the total distance.
- a) 125 km
- b) 305 km
- c) 270 km
- d) 224 km
Arjun crosses a 600 m long street in 5 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?
- a) 3.6 km/hr
- b) 8.4 km/hr
- c) 7.2 km/hr
- d) 10 km/hr
Aabha has a sum of money which is sufficient to pay her gardener’s wages for 36 days or her cook’s wages for 45 days. With same amount of money she can pay the wages of both for:
- a) 28 days
- b) 24 days
- c) 20 days
- d) 29 days
Find out the average of the remaining two numbers if the average of six numbers is 5. The average of two of them is 3.5, while the average of the other two is 3.8.?
- a) 5.5
- b) 4.6
- c) 7.7
- d) 6.8
Seats for Science, Mathematics and Biology in a collage are in the ratio 5:7:8. There is a proposal to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased seats?
- a) 6:7: 8
- b) 2:3: 4
- c) 1:2:3
- d) 7:8:9
If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of first number to the second number?
- a) 4:7
- b) 5:3
- c) 1:2
- d) 8:9
In what ratio should the 2 mixtures of milk, containing milk and water in ratios 3 : 4 and 10 : 7 should be mixed so that the resulting mixture has equal amount of milk and water?
- a) 9 : 5
- b) 21 : 17
- c) 13 : 11
- d) 4 : 9
Find the angle, if the angle is equal to five times its complement.
- a) 750
- b) 680
- c) 900
- d) 400
AB is a diameter of a circle with centre at O. DC is a chord of it such that DC||AB. If ∠BAC=200, then ∠ADC is equal to:
- a) 120
- b) 110
- c) 115
- d) 100
What is the average number of junior engineers employed in all the companies?
- a) 110
- b) 170
- c) 140
- d) 206
If the number of all the engineers in the company A, company C and company D be increased by 20%, 30% and 40% respectively, what will be the overall percentage increase in the number of all engineers of all the companies taken together?
- a) 18%
- b) 35%
- c) 42%
- d) 19%
What is the ratio between the number of assistant engineers employed in company A and company C?
- a) 5:7
- b) 4:9
- c) 2:1
- d) 3:4
If the number of assistant engineers employed in all the companies is increased by 37% and the number of post graduate engineers employed in all the companies is decreased by 20% by what percent will the number of assistant engineers be less than that of post graduate engineers?
- a) 17.72%
- b) 15.42%
- c) 22.15%
- d) 19.87%
What is the difference between the average number of junior engineers and assistant engineers taking all the companies together?
- a) 18
- b) 42
- c) 50
- d) 30
How many numbers are divisible by 275 between 1000 and 6000?
- a) 16
- b) 18
- c) 14
- d) 20
A shopkeeper allows a discount of 22.5% on the marked price of a certain article and makes a profit of 40%. If the article costs the shopkeeper Rs.155, then the marked price of the article will be:
- a) 380
- b) 280
- c) 480
- d) 180
The Simple Interest on Rs.5000 in 4 years @ y% p.a. equals the Simple Interest on Rs.8000 @ 10% p.a. in 2 years. Find the value of y.
- a) 4%
- b) 16%
- c) 32%
- d) 8%
If x distance is covered at speed and half of this distance is covered in double the time. Then find the ratio of the two speeds.
- a) 2 : 1
- b) 4 : 1
- c) 3 : 1
- d) 1 : 1
If a bus travels at 20 km/hr, it reaches the destination late by 11 minutes. But if it runs at 25 km/hr, it reaches late only by 5 minutes. Find the exact time in which the bus will complete the journey without getting late?
- a) 19 minutes
- b) 20 minutes
- c) 16 minutes
- d) 21 minutes
Seema takes 3 days to do a piece of work while Manisha takes only one day for the same. Together they both can finish the job in 15 days. In how many days Manisha will finish the work?
- a) 60 Days
- b) 30 Days
- c) 20 Days
- d) 40 Days
A cricket player has an average score of 40 runs for 52 innings played by him. In an innings his highest score exceeds his lowest score by 100 runs. If these two innings are excluded, his average of the remaining 50 innings is 38 runs. Find his highest score in an innings.
- a) 80
- b) 40
- c) 140
- d) 60
If 558 coins consist of 1 Re. coins, Rs. 2 coins and Rs. 5 coins, whose value are in the ratio of 13:11:7, then find the total amount of Rs. 2 coins.
- a) Rs. 198
- b) Rs. 396
- c) Rs. 792
- d) Rs. 990
Rs. 372 was to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/5. But by mistake it was divided in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. Find the excess amount received by C.
- a) Rs. 114
- b) Rs. 104
- c) Rs. 124
- d) Rs. 94
Two circles touch each other internally and their radii are 4cm and 6cm. Find the length of the biggest chord of the greater circle which is outside the inner circle.
- a) 8 cm
- b) 4√2 cm
- c) 8√2 cm
- d) 4 cm
- Evaluate cos 400/sin 500
- a) -1
- b) 1
- c) 2
- d) 0
- (1+ cot2θ)(1+cosθ)(1-cosθ) = ?
- a) 0
- b) -1
- c) 2
- d) 1
- sin2θ + cosec2 θ – 2 = ?
- a) –cos4θcosec2θ
- b) cos4θsec2θ
- c) cos4θcosec2θ
- d) sec4θcosec2θ
Direction (21 – 25): Read the table given below and answer the questions:
Food Grain production in India in 2014 (in lakh tons)
| States | Rice | Wheat | Maize | Pulses | Others |
| Haryana | 45 | 103 | – | 27 | 29 |
| Rajasthan | 48 | 86 | 73 | 19 | 15 |
| Punjab | 59 | 32 | 67 | 14 | 31 |
| Odisha | 41 | 37 | 59 | 21 | 15 |
| Maharashtra | 37 | 22 | 41 | 13 | 11 |
| Karnataka | 68 | 15 | 12 | – | 18 |
| Tamil Nadu | 57 | 8 | 7 | 12 | 10 |
| Kerala | 38 | 28 | 31 | 22 | 45 |
Which state produces 70 tons of more grains than Tamil Nadu?
- a) Kerala
- b) Maharashtra
- c) Punjab
- d) Haryana
What was the proportion of rice production in Karnataka to wheat production in Rajasthan?
- a) 1 : 1
- b) 1.2 : 1
- c) 2 : 1
- d) 0.8 : 1
Maize was the most important food grain in the state/ states?
- a) Rajasthan, Punjab and Odisha
- b) Punjab & Odisha
- c) Punjab, Odisha and Maharashtra
- d) Rajasthan & Punjab
Haryana alone accounted for approximately what percentage of wheat production in the country?
- a) 30%
- b) 32%
- c) 33%
- d) 31%
If the average per hectare yield of rice in the country was 30 tons, then find the area under rice cultivation during the year (approx. in lakh hectares).
- a) 15
- b) 30
- c) 13
- d) 26
How many numbers are divisible by 275 between 1000 and 6000?
- a) 16
- b) 18
- c) 14
- d) 20
The marked price of an article for sale is 20% of its cost price. How much percent does the dealer gain by allowing a discount of 15%?
- a) 5%
- b) 7%
- c) 10%
- d) 6.25%
A shopkeeper allows a discount of 22.5% on the marked price of a certain article and makes a profit of 40%. If the article costs the shopkeeper Rs.155, then the marked price of the article will be:
- a) 380
- b) 280
- c) 480
- d) 180
The Simple Interest on Rs.5000 in 4 years @ y% p.a. equals the Simple Interest on Rs.8000 @ 10% p.a. in 2 years. Find the value of y.
- a) 4%
- b) 16%
- c) 32%
- d) 8%
If x distance is covered at speed and half of this distance is covered in double the time. Then find the ratio of the two speeds.
- a) 2 : 1
- b) 4 : 1
- c) 3 : 1
- d) 1 : 1
If a bus travels at 20 km/hr, it reaches the destination late by 11 minutes. But if it runs at 25 km/hr, it reaches late only by 5 minutes. Find the exact time in which the bus will complete the journey without getting late?
- a) 19 minutes
- b) 20 minutes
- c) 16 minutes
- d) 21 minutes
Seema takes 3 days to do a piece of work while Manisha takes only one day for the same. Together they both can finish the job in 15 days. In how many days Manisha will finish the work?
- a) 60 Days
- b) 30 Days
- c) 20 Days
- d) 40 Days
A cricket player has an average score of 40 runs for 52 innings played by him. In an innings his highest score exceeds his lowest score by 100 runs. If these two innings are excluded, his average of the remaining 50 innings is 38 runs. Find his highest score in an innings.
- a) 80
- b) 40
- c) 140
- d) 60
If 558 coins consist of 1 Re. coins, Rs. 2 coins and Rs. 5 coins, whose value are in the ratio of 13:11:7, then find the total amount of Rs. 2 coins.
- a) Rs. 198
- b) Rs. 396
- c) Rs. 792
- d) Rs. 990
Rs. 372 was to be divided among A, B and C in the ratio of 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/5. But by mistake it was divided in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. Find the excess amount received by C.
- a) Rs. 114
- b) Rs. 104
- c) Rs. 124
- d) Rs. 94
. If a regular polygon’s each angle is equal to 4/5 times of two right angles, then find out the number of sides of the polygon?
- a) 4
- b) 8
- c) 6
- d) 10
Two circles touch each other internally and their radii are 4cm and 6cm. Find the length of the biggest chord of the greater circle which is outside the inner circle.
- a) 8 cm
- b) 4√2 cm
- c) 8√2 cm
- d) 4 cm
- Evaluate cos 400/sin 500
- a) -1
- b) 1
- c) 2
- d) 0
(1+ cot2 θ)(1+cosθ)(1-cosθ) = ?
- a) 0
- b) -1
- c) 2
- d) 1
sin2 θ + cosec2 θ – 2 = ?
- a) –cos4θcosec2θ
- b) cos4θsec2θ
- c) cos4θcosec2θ
- d) sec4θcosec2θ
General Intelligence and Reasoning mock test
Merchant’ is related to ‘Trade’ in the same way as ‘Doctor’ is related to:
(a) Medicine
(b) Prescription
(c) Healing
(d) Examination
Fish’ is related to ‘Pisciculture’ in the same way as ‘Bees’ is related to:
(a) Horticulture
(b) Apiculture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Viticulture
Out of the four options given below, three are of a kind while one does not belong to the group. Choose the one which is unlike the others.
(a) Circle : arc
(b) TV : Screen
(c) Book : Cover
(d) Laptop : Charger
What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?
114 11510713470?
(a) 140
(b) 35
(c) 195
(d) 150
In a certain code, WORKABLE is written as VOYZPILD, how will BLUNDERS be written in same code?
(a) CMVOEST
(b) TSEOVMC
(c) YOFMWVIH
(d) HIVWMFOY
Statements: All purses are mobile. All mobile are phones. Some mobile are rings. No ring is purse.
Which Conclusion is right?
(a) Some purse is ring.
(b) No mobile is ring.
(c) Some phones are purse.
(d) All rings are mobile.
D, the son-in-law of B, is the brother-in-law of A who is the brother of C. How is A related to B?
(a) Brother
(b) Son
(c) Father
(d) None of these
There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G sitting in a line facing west. E is to the immediate right of G. B is at one of the extreme ends and has E as his neighbour. G is between E and F. C is sitting second from the south end. Who is sitting at the southern end?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) E
A man starts walking towards Northeast diagonally from the left corner of a square plot and turns right after reaching the center of the plot. After some distance he again turns right and continues walking. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) South
(d) North
Direction (10 – 12): Study the following arrangement of the English alphabet and answer the questions given below.
U Q N K L D I M Y V B X P Z E O W T C F S J R H A G
Which letter is tenth to the right of the letter which is exactly the middle letter between U and W?
(a) W
(b) T
(c) S
(d) None of these
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(a) YIB
(b) VXM
(c) SCR
(d) LNI
Amit is cleverer than Rohan. Sudeep is cleverer than Amit, but not more than Harshit. Garima is the cleverest of them all. If they are arranged in ascending order of cleverness, then who among the following will hold the middle position?
(a) Amit
(b) Rohan
(c) Sudeep
(d) Harshit
If P means ‘add to’, V means ‘multiply by’, M means ‘subtract from’ and L means ‘divide by’ then
30 L 2 P 3 V 6 M 5 = ?
(a) 18
(b) 28
(c) 31
(d) 103
Arrange the following words in a meaningful order
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Universe
3. Madurai
4. World
5. India
(a) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
(b) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
(c) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
Arrange the following words in a meaningful order
1. Rain
2. Monsoon
3. Rescue
4. Flood
5. Shelter
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,
(b) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3,
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5,
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5,
In a certain coded language BAT is coded as 2012, BALL is coded as 121212. What will be the coded of BOWLER?
(a) 1851223152
(b) 1815221352
(c) 95323152
(d) 185223152
. A statement is given in the following question and it is followed by its four alternatives in which one alternative either support of refute the statement. Find out the alternative from each question.
Statement: Stitch in time, saves nine.
Conclusion:
- The person who is punctual, always has some spare time.
II. One should always plan a time-schedule for work.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Matter: Vacuum::Government: __? __
a) Anarchy
b) Democracy
c) Monarchy
d) Corrupt
PQUT: VWAZ:: LMQP: __? __
a) RSUT
b) RSYX
c) RSWV
d) RSVW
Out of the four options given below, four are of a kind while one does not belong to the group. Choose the one which is unlike the others.
a) APBQ
b) CRDT
c) EUFV
d) GWHX
What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?
24, 100, 404, 1620, ?
- a) 6484
b) 6845
c) 6248
d) 5890
In a certain code language, ‘pen pencil’ is written as ‘$%’ and ‘eraser sharpener’ is written as ‘@#’ and ‘pencil eraser’ is written as ‘$@’. Then, what is the code for ‘pen’?
a) #
b) $
c) @
d) %
conclusion that logically follows:
Statements: All flowers are trees. All books are pens. Some pens are flowers.
Conclusions:
- Some books are trees.
II. Some pens are trees.
III. Some books are flowers.
IV. All books are flowers. - a) Only I follows
b) Only II follows
c) Only III follows
d) Only I, II, III follows
Mrs. Dixit meets a man at a marriage party who is the brother of the sister of her husband. How is the man related to Mrs. Dixit?
a) Father
b) Father-in-law
c) Cousin
d) Brother-in-law
Read the following information and answer the question given below :
There are eight books kept on over the other. Two books are on Professional ethics, two books on SFM, three books on Environmental science and one book on Politics. Counting from the top, the second, fifth and sixth books are on environmental science. Two of them are between the books on SFM. One Environmental Science book is between two books on Professional ethics while the book above the book on Politics is a book of SFM.
If the books are partitioned as two rows by taking four from the top, which of the books will be at the bottom?
a) SFM and Professional ethics
b) SFM and Environmental science
c) SFM and Politics
d) Politics and Professional ethics
Harpreet’s motorbike is facing towards West. He turns left and drives 10 km and turns left again and drives 10 km. Then he turns right and drives 40 km. He turns right again and drives 30 km. lastly; he turns right and drives 50 km. How far is Harpreet from the starting point?
a) 10 km
b) 20 km
c) 40 km
d) 60 km
Direction for questions 10 and 11: Consider the following arrangement of letters and digits:
R 9 Z A P 1 D 2 S Q K E 5 G 7 I 3 Y U 8
Which letter/digit is 5th on the left of the letter/digit which is 9th on the right of the letter/digit which is 3rd letter that you get when you start reading from the left?
a) E
b) 2
c) D
d) 1
Start from K. Move 5 to the right. You get I. Move 9 to the left and then 3 to the right. Then move 10 to the right. What do you get?
a) K
b) 8
c) 1
d) U
In a row, X is 6th from the left and Y is 8th from the right. Both interchange positions and thus X becomes 10th from the left. How many people are there in the row?
a) 17
b) 16
c) 15
d) 18
If 5 boys eats 18 apples in 9 days, how long at the same rate will 66 apples last for 15 boys?
a) 15 days
b) 13 days
c) 8 days
d) 11 days
Arrange the following words in a meaningful order:
- Growth
2. Consumption
3. Investment
4. Per capita income
5. GDP - a) 2, 3, 1,5,4
b) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
d) 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
Arrange the following words in a meaningful order:
- District
2. Village
3. State
4. Block
5. Tehsil - a) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
b) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
c) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
d) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
There is a grid of 20 squares by 10 squares. How many different rectangles are possible?
a) 11500
b) 10500
c) 12000
d) 11550
A statement is given in the following question and it is followed by its four alternatives in which one alternative either support of refute the statement. Find out the alternative for given question.
Statement: In goiter, there is an inadequacy of iodine content in the body.
Conclusions:
- The adequate consumption of iodine is required to control goiter.
II. Type of salt should be checked before consumption.
Give Answer:
- a) if only conclusion (I) follows.
b) if only conclusion (II) follows.
c) if either conclusion (I) or (II) follows.
d) If neither conclusion I nor (II) follow.
Divorce’ is related to ‘Marriage’ in the same way as ‘False’ is related to:
a) Fiction
b) Lie
c) True
d) Story
Out of the four options given below, three are of a kind while one does not belong to the group. Choose the one which is unlike the others.
a) Chili
b) Potato
c) Brinjal
d) Tomato
What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?
15, 45, 135, 405, ?, 3645
- a) 945
b) 650
c) 550
d) 1215
In a certain code language ‘123’ stands for ‘I am servant’, ‘279’ stands for ‘servant always miserable’ and ‘684’ stands for ‘poverty is curse’, then which numeric value stands for ‘always’?
a) 6
b) 7
c) 4
d) Cannot be determined
Given question have some statements and some conclusions. Choose the conclusion that logically follows:
Statements: All powers are heats. Some forces are heats. All forces are energies.
Conclusions:
- At least some heats are energies.
II. No power is a force. - a) Only conclusion I is true
b) Only conclusion II is true
c) Both conclusion I and II are true
d) Either conclusion I or II is true
If U + V means U is the brother of V, W – X means W is the father of S, X ÷ Y means X is the sister of Y, Y × Z means Z is the mother of Y. Which of the following means that N is the mother of O?
a) L + M ÷ N × O
b) L – M × O ÷ P
c) M + L ÷ O × N
d) N ÷ M × L ÷ O
Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing center. H is fourth to the left of B and second to the right of F. A is third to the left of C, who is not an immediate neighbor of F. G is second to the left of A. D is second to the right of E.
Who is on the immediate right of F?
a) H
b) A
c) G
d) E
From his house, Pradeep went 25 km to the North. Then he turned west and covered 15 km. Then, he turned south and covered 10 km. Finally, turned to East, he covered 15 km. In which direction is he from his house?
a) North
b) South
c) West
d) East
Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes in the last?
a) Efflorescent
b) Entry
c) Entreat
d) Ensure
Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick the one that comes in the last?
a) Signature
b) Sight
c) Sign
d) Significance
In a row of students, If M who is 10th from the left and N who is 9th from the right interchange their positions; M becomes 25th from the left. How many students are there in the row?
a) 34
b) 32
c) 33
d) 35
If + means ÷, × means -, ÷ means × and – means+, than 16 + 12 × 8 ÷ 6 – 8 =?
a) -12
b) -20/3
c) 20/3
d) -116/3
Arrange the following in a logical order:
- Table
2. Tree
3. Wood
4. Seed
5. Plant - a) 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
b) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1
c) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Arrange the following in a logical order:
- Post box
2. Letter
3. Envelope
4. Delivery
5. Clearance - a) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4,
b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
c) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
d) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
If ‘A’ denotes “divided by”, ‘B’ denotes “added to”, ‘X’ denotes “subtracted from”, ‘R’ denotes “multiplied by”, then 18 R 12 A 4 X 8 B 6 =?
a) 52
b) 102
c) 45
d) 32
Select the missing number from the given responses.
| 29 | 13 | 18 |
| 33 | A | 19 |
| 30 | 27 | 3 |
What is the missing number indicated above by A?
a) 11
b) 8
c) 15
d) 22
The following question have one statement followed by two conclusions. Read and understand them carefully and then select your answer option as given below.
Statement: Some kings are queens. All queens are beautiful.
Conclusions:
- All kings are beautiful.
II. All queens are kings.a) Only conclusion I follows.
b) Only conclusion II follows.
c) Neither conclusion I nor II follow.
d) Either conclusion I or II follows.
English Language and Comprehension
In the following question, the first word is given in capital letters followed by four alternative words. Select from the alternatives the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capital letters.
LEVERAGING
a) Weakening
b) Destroying
c) Gearing
d) Demonstrating
In the following question, the first word is given in capital letters followed by four other words, one of which is the antonym of the first word. Find the word.
HEDGING
a) Minimizing
b) Maximizing
c) Climbing
d) Sidelining
Directions (3 – 5): The following sentences can be replaced with one word from the options given below them. Choose the correct word and mark as your answer.
A wrong or inaccurate use of a name or term
a) Misunderstanding
b) Misjudge
c) Misinterpret
d) Misnomer
person in-charge of a museum
a) Orator
b) Administrator
c) Curator
d) Operator
A Life story of person written by self
a) Bibliography
b) Autobiography
c) Photography
d) Lithography
Directions (6 – 9): Choose the option that completes the sentence most meaningfully and appropriately.
The Banks and Financial Institutions had been experiencing considerable difficulties in __________ loans and enforcement of securities charged with them.
a) Inventing
b) Discovering
c) Recovering
d) Originating
The government will subject the recommended candidates to the necessary due __________ process before it makes the final decision on appointments.
a) Hard work
b) Diligence
c) Credit
d) Obligation
NPCI was started by the RBI with a mandate to develop an Indian payments switch to drive financial ____________ in the country.
a) Incision
b) Incentive
c) Investment
d) Inclusion
Bankers estimate about a third of these bonds could potentially be turned into derivatives, helping to further ____________ the young product.
a) Broach
b) Introduce
c) Boost
d) Blow
Directions (10 – 12): Each of the following sentences is divided in to four parts. Any of the parts may contain an error. Select the part that has an error. Select option (d), if you find no error in the sentence. Ignore punctuation errors if any.
. I will now deal with her (a)/ in a manner different from (b)/ the one I have adapted so far (c).
Vaani, seated in the visitors’ gallery, (a)/ glanced at her watch for the (b)/ fifth time in the past ten minutes (c).
The boy who will score (a)/ the maximum points, (b)/ will carry the trophy (c).
Correctly Spelt Words
Which of the following spellings is correct?
a) Fahrenhiet
b) Fahrenheit
c) Farenheit
d) Farenhiet
Directions (14 – 18): In the following questions each sentence has an underlined part that can be improved by replacing the part with one among the four options given below. Choose the correct option and if you think no improvements can be made, then select (d) as your answer.
The main point of her speech was well understood.
a) That she spoke
b) Made when she spoke
c) Made by her speech
d) No improvement
Potatoes are dead cheap these days.
a) Deadly Cheap
b) Dirt Cheap
c) Dust Cheap
d) No improvement
It is time the 2 year old is learning how to walk and run.
a) Has learned
b) Learnt
c) Was learning
d) No improvement
Is there any place for her to sit?
a) Space
b) Room
c) Area
d) No Improvement
If you come across my book anywhere, bring it to me, can you?
a) Don’t you?
b) Will you?
c) Isn’t it?
d) No Improvement
Directions (19 – 20): The following sentences have a certain phrase highlighted in bold. Choose the correct phrase from the options given below to replace the highlighted phrase and make it grammatically correct. Ignore punctuation errors if any.
Your remark about finances reach the bull’s-eye.
a) Instigate the bull’s-eye
b) Ignore the bull’s-eye
c) Approach the bull’s-eye
d) Hit the bull’s-eye
His views on female foeticide are effectively a paper test of his views on women’s rights.
a) An equality test
b) an eraser test
c) a litmus test
d) a gender test
Reading Comprehension
Directions (21 – 25): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Seeking to move towards a cashless economy, the government has proposed income tax benefits for people making payments through credit or debit cards, besides doing away with transaction charges on the purchase of petrol, gas and rail tickets with plastic money. This is the first serious effort to tackle the predominance of cash in India’s economy. India is a hugely cash-dependent economy. The RBI and commercial banks annually spend around Rs 21,000 crore in currency operations costs while the citizens of Delhi alone spend Rs 9.1 crore and 60 lakh hours in collecting cash.
The scale of this burden is unique to India considering that it is among the most cash-intensive economies with a cash-to-GDP ratio of 12%, almost four times as much as other markets such as Brazil (3.93%), Mexico (5.3%) and South Africa (3.73%). Moreover, cash transactions and black money are directly linked, since a cash trail is nigh impossible to track. As such, electronic transactions and the ease of audit they afford should make the government’s job much easier in terms of curbing illegal transactions.
What the switchover to payments by credit and debit cards means is that the payer must have money in the bank. This can be facilitated through a greater recourse to direct cash transfer of subsidies to banks. But, those who avail of this may not belong to the section that pays income tax. Given that less than three per cent of our population pays income tax, transactions by plastic cards may not amount to much. But, the scene is changing. For instance, payments by mobiles have grown from just 860 transactions in November 2010 to 4.4 million in August 2014. With the spread of Internet and expansion of e-commerce, online payments are fast catching on among the middle class. These are mostly cashless transactions. It is also necessary to remember that a move towards a cashless economy will eliminate the cost of printing and distributing cash. If to these expenses are added the cost of storage and maintaining the currencies in the over 60,000 ATMs, the outlay becomes prohibitive. The answer is a buoyant economy that will reduce the numbers of those who still regard cash as the only reliable legal tender.
According to the author of the passage, what type of economy is India?
a) Dependent Economy
b) Developed Economy
c) Cash-intensive Economy
d) Labour-intensive Economy
According to the passage, which country after India can be considered to be a Cash-dependent economy?
a) Brazil
b) Mexico
c) South Africa
d) Brazil or South Africa
According to the author of the passage, which of the following is directly linked?
a) Credit transactions and black money
b) Cash transactions and black money
c) Cash and Credit Transactions
d) Black and White Money
How would the e-transactions help the Government of India?
a) Increasing the revenue of the government
b) Increasing the paperwork of the government
c) Curbing illegal transactions
d) Increasing the audit work at government level
Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the passage?
a) Payments by mobiles have grown from 860 transactions in 2010 to 4.4 million in 2014.
b) The RBI and commercial banks annually spend around Rs 21,000 crore in currency operations costs.
c) Citizens of Delhi alone spend Rs. 9.1 crore and 60 lakh hours in collecting cash.
d) Less than 4% of our population pays income tax.
Online Mock Test for SSC Exam 2022
SSC CGL online test series: The candidates who are appearing for the tier 1 exam of SSC in the upcoming months can now use the mock tests to prepare the best. The necessity of mock tests in government exam preparation is comparatively high. The mock tests will let the candidates to know their weak areas and improve them as well as helps them to maintain the time management.
Tier 1 Mock Test
Here is the SSC CGL tier 1 mock test. Get the SSC CGL mock test PDF here
| SSC CGL Mock Test 2022 | Download Link |
| Similarities and differences mock test | Click Here |
| Blood Relations mock test | Click here |
| SSC CGL English mock test | Click Here |
| Computation of whole numbers mock test | Click Here |
Tier 2 Mock Test
| SSC CGL Mock Test 2022 | Download Link |
| Profit and Loss mock test | Click Here |
| Quadrilaterals mock test | Click here |
| One word substitution mock test | Click Here |
| Comprehension passage mock test | Click Here |
Scheme of SSC CGL 2022 Exam
The SSC CGL exam will be having four phases:
- Tier-I: Computer Based Examination
- Tier-II: Computer Based Examination
- Tier-III: Pen and Paper Mode (Descriptive paper)
- Tier-IV: Computer Proficiency Test or Data Entry Skill Test or Document Verification.
Major features of each are listed below.
- Tier-I and Tier-II will consist of Objective Type, Multiple choice questions only.
- The questions will be set both in English & Hindi.
- There will be a negative marking of 0.50 for each wrong answer for Tier I.
- Candidates shortlisted after Tier I can only attend the Tier II exam.
- There will be a negative marking of 0.25 for each wrong answer in Paper-II of the Tier II exam.
- And a negative marking of 0.50 marks for each wrong answer in Paper-I, Paper-III and Paper-IV.
- The Paper-I and Paper-II of Tier II are compulsory for all the posts.
- Paper-III of Tier-II will be for only those candidates who apply for the posts of Junior Statistical Officer (JSO) in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation and Statistical Investigator Grade-II in the office of Registrar General, India (M/o Home Affairs).
- Paper-IV for the posts of Assistant Audit Officer/ Assistant Accounts Officer.
Tier-I: Computer Based Examination
The exam date for the computer-based Tier I exam is in March 2022.
| Subject | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Time Duration |
| General Intelligence and Reasoning | 25 | 50 |
60 Minutes. 1 hour and 20 minutes for the candidates who are allowed the use of a scribe |
| General Awareness | 25 | 50 | |
| Quantitative Aptitude | 25 | 50 | |
| English Comprehension | 25 | 50 |
Click here for the best mock test for SSC CGL 2022
Tier-II: Computer Based Examination
The Tier II exam will be conducted in June 2022. The exam pattern will be as follows:
| Subject | Number of Questions | Maximum Marks | Time Duration |
| Quantitative Aptitude | 100 | 200 |
120 Minutes (for each Paper). 2 hours and 40 minutes for the candidates who are allowed the use of a scribe |
| English Language and Comprehension | 200 | 200 | |
| Statistics | 100 | 200 | |
| General Studies (Finance and Economics) | 100 | 200 |
Tier III Descriptive Paper
The exam will be of pen and paper mode. The shortlisted candidates will be asked to write an Essay or Precis or Letter or Application within 60 minutes. The maximum marks awarded will be 100. The Paper in Tier-III will have to be written either in Hindi or in English.
Tier-IV Skill Test
Computer Proficiency Test and Data Entry Skill Test will be conducted.
So, this is the exam pattern that the candidate has to follow. Mere preparation of syllabus topics won’t help to crack this competitive exam. As mentioned the exam is online with a fixed time limit. Moreover, the candidate wants to navigate through all four subject topics. Therefore planning is very important. The online interface is very much different from pen-paper mode exams. Also, you should check whether the preparation strategy followed is correct or not? Are you able to score marks above previous year cut off’s? The number of questions that you can attempt within the time limit and the areas which you need to revise.
Click here to practice the SSC CGL Free mock test series Level 1.
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