Kerala PSC is all set to send out recruitment notifications for around 73 posts in the Kerala state government services. Kerala PSC council has agreed to invite applications for different posts like Sub Inspector of Police, Dietician, Agricultural Officer, etc.. Across different government departments, Kerala PSC new notification will be a golden chance for eligible graduates from the state. In this blog we will discuss the kerala PSC Dental Surgeon Previous Questions.
Kerala PSC Dental Surgeon Previous Questions: Posts under Kerala PSC
The different posts under the notification of Kerala PSC are;
- Sub Inspector of Police
- Armed Police Sub Inspector
- Dental Surgeon
- Chief- Evaluation Division
- Agricultural Lecturer
- Agricultural Officer
- Junior Health Inspector Grade- II
- Part-time High School Teacher- Hindi
- Fitter Mechanical
- Special recruitment and NCA recruitment, etc
Kerala PSC Dental Surgeon Previous Questions: Education Eligibility
- For Sub Inspector of Police (Armed Sub Inspector) Graduates from any stream are eligible.
- For Dietician, a degree in Home Science and Diploma in Nutrition or Dietitics recognized by Government is required.
- For Health Inspector Grade II -A Degree in Home Science awarded by a recognized University and a Diploma in Nutrition or Dietitics recognized by Government.
- For Binder, SSLC, and Diploma in Printing Technology of a recognized institution or
Pass in KGTE or MGTE in Book Binding (Lower) or VHSE with printing technology or equivalent qualification is required.
Education eligibility, age limit, and other technical qualifications will update once the official notification is out. We will let you know once the application link is live on the PSC profile page.
Kerala PSC Dental Surgeon Previous Questions: Application Procedure
- Interested candidates should register with “One Time Registration”.
- Candidates can log in with the Username and Password.
- Click on the “Apply Now” button against the respective post. If you know the category number can do the quick apply.
- The photograph should be taken after 31/12/2010.
- There is no application fee.
- Candidates shall take a printout of the application by clicking the link Registration Card in their profile.
- Go through the details before submitting the application.
- The application submitted is provisional and cannot be deleted or altered after submission.
- Candidates have to give confirmation within the stipulated time. Those who fail to give confirmation will be rejected.
- Admission tickets will be available to download 15 days before the exam date.
- Candidates who have AADHAAR card should add AADHAAR card as ID proof in their profile.
Kerala PSC Dental Surgeon Previous Questions: Syllabus
KPSC Assistant Dental Surgeon Health Services Exam comprises questions from 14 different sections. The questions are expected from the following topics.
- General Human Anatomy
- General Human Physiology and Bio-chemistry
- General Pathology and Microbiology
- General Pharmacology
- Oral Anatomy and Histology
- Oral Pathology and Microbiology
- Forensic Odontology
- Oral Medicine and Radiology
- Community Dentistry
- Conservative Dentistry and Endodontic
- Restorative Dental Materials
- Oral Surgery, Local and General Anaesthesia
- Prosthodontics including dental materials
Questions for 2017
1. Which article of Indian constitution deals with ‘General Election’ ?
(A) Article 321 (B) Article 312 (C) Article 330 (D) Article 331
Ans: Question deleted.
Right answer is Article 324. Laws pertaining to the elections in India are contained in Part XV of the Indian Constitution. The provisions mentioned in the Articles (324 to 329) cover all aspects of conducting elections starting from inclusion of names in electoral roll to formulation of laws pertaining to elections.
2. Who is the Hajj affairs minister of Kerala ?
(A) A.C. Moideen (B) K.T. Jaleel (C) T.K. Hamza (D) G. Sudakaran
3. Which is the Headquarters of Calicut University ?
(A) Karyavattom (B) Mannuthi (C) Thrikkakara (D) Tenhippalam
4. Who is the first Keralite Oscar winner ?
(A) Vincent (B) P.J. Antony
(C) Rasool Pukkutty (D) Hariharan
5. Dum Dum Airport of Kolkotta is renamed as __________ .
(A) Jyothibasu Airport (B) Rabindranath Tagore Airport
(C) Subash Chandra Bose Airport (D) Chathrapathi Shivaji Airport
6. ‘Upanishads’ generally deals with __________ .
(A) Philosophy (B) Vyakarana (C) Way of Life (D) Meditation
7. ‘Yasoda’ was the __________ of Buddha.
(A) Sister (B) Mother (C) Daughter (D) Wife
8. Which of the following was the centre of Sangam literature ?
(A) Mahodayapuram (B) Madurai
(C) Puhar (D) Kaveripattanam
9. Gandhiji’s first involvement in Indian political affairs was in __________ .
(A) Champaran Satyagraha (B) Anti – Rowlatt Act Campaign
(C) Salt Satyagraha (D) Civil Disobedience Movement
10. Salt Satyagraha in Kerala was at __________ .
(A) Payyannur (B) Kozhikode (C) Kodungallur (D) Kochi
11. Who was elected as the President of Central Legislative Assembly in 1925 as a representative
of Swarajist party ?
(A) Motilal Nehru (B) Vithal Bai Patel
(C) C.R. Das (D) Vallabai Patel
12. How many persons signed in ‘Malayali Memorial’ of 1891?
(A) 10048 (B) 10038 (C) 10018 (D) 10028
13. The first railway line in Kerala runs between __________ .
(A) Bepore and Tirur (B) Ernakulam and Thrissiveperur
(C) Kayamkulam and Shornnur (D) Kozhikode and Kannur
14. Who among the following is not a member of Cabinet Mission ?
(A) Pathik Lawrence (B) Strafford Cripps
(C) A.V. Alexander (D) Jhon Simon
15. Gandhi – Irwin Pact was in __________ .
(A) 1921 (B) 1931 (C) 1929 (D) 1932
16. Who is the author of ‘Neel Darpan’ ?
(A) Arabindo Gosh (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Deenbandhu Mitra (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
17. Which one of the following was not the aim of Non-Co-operation Movement ?
(A) Attainment of Complete Independence
(B) Attainment of Swaraj
(C) Solution to Punjab problem
(D) Solution to Khilafath Issue
18. Who among the following is not the leader of Khilafath Movement ?
(A) Moulana Mohamedali (B) Moulana Shoukathali
(C) Hakim Ajmal Khan (D) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
19. Who was the leader of ‘Pookottur war’ which occurred during Malabar Rebellion of 1921 ?
(A) Ali Musliyar (B) Vadakkeveettil Mohamed
(C) Karadan Moideen (D) Seethikoya Thangal
20. Which one of the following was not the feature of India Act of 1935 ?
(A) All India Federation (B) Provincial Autonomy
(C) Provincial Dyarchy (D) Separate Electorate
21. Sphenomandibular ligament is a remnant of :
(A) 1st Pharyngeal arch (B) 2nd Pharyngeal arch
(C) 3rd Pharyngeal arch (D) 4th Pharyngeal arch
22. Secretomotor innervation of parotid gland is derived from :
(A) Superior Salivatory nucleus (B) Inferior salivatory nucleus
(C) Nucleus tractus solitarius (D) Lacrimatory nucleus
23. Which of the following muscles of tongue is NOT supplied by hypoglossal nerve ?
(A) Styloglossus (B) Hyoglossus (C) Genioglossus (D) Palatoglossus
24. All are branches of external carotid artery EXCEPT :
(A) Inferior thyroid artery (B) Lingual artery
(C) Facial artery (D) Occipital artery
25. Which of the following muscles is the depressor of temporomandibular joint ?
(A) Temporalis (B) Massetor
(C) Lateral pterygoid (D) Medial pterygoid
26. Which is the main form of transport of CO2 in blood ?
(A) Carbamino Hb (B) Dissolved form
(C) Carbonic acid (D) Bicarbonate
27. Hemoglobin is converted to bilirubin in :
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Bone marrow (D) Kidney
28. The main excitatory neurotransmitter in brain is :
(A) Glutamate (B) Glycine (C) GABA (D) Ach
29. Maximum absorption of water takes place in :
(A) Collecting duct (B) Distal convoluted tubule
(C) Proximal convoluted tubule (D) Loop of Henle
30. Oncotic pressure of plasma is due to :
(A) Albumin (B) Fibrinogen (C) RBC (D) Electrolytes
31. Chromosomal abnormality associated with Chronic myeloid leukaemia is :
(A) t(8;21) (B) t(9;22) (C) del 5q- (D) t(15;16)
32. __________ is a feature of chronic inflammation.
(A) Keloid (B) Suppuration
(C) Granulation tissue (D) Granuloma
33. Following are components of Virchow’s triad except :
(A) emboli (B) hypercoagulability
(C) altered blood flow (D) endothelial injury
34. Among the following, __________ is a proto oncogene.
(A) p53 (B) Rb (C) APC (D) cERB B2
35. Which of the following findings is seen in red blood cells in Megaloblastic anemia ?
(A) Macropolycyte (B) Dohle bodies (C) Cabot rings (D) Dutcher body
36. Which among the following is an Ionotropic Receptor ?
(A) GABAA Receptor (B) D1 Receptor
(C) Muscarinic Receptor (D) D2 Receptor
37. Therapeutic Index is expressed as :
38. Acute development of tolerance after rapid and repeated administration of drugs at short
intervals is :
(A) Tachyphylaxis (B) Idiosyncrasy
(C) Cross tolerance (D) Metabolic tolerance
39. In which phase of clinical trial pharmacological evaluation of the new drug is performed on
healthy volunteers ?
(A) Phase III (B) Phase II (C) Phase I (D) Phase IV
40. Alcoholic extracts of plant drugs are called :
(A) Elixirs (B) Tinctures (C) Emulsion (D) Linctus
41. Choose the best dietary source of Vitamin C from the following :
(A) Meat (B) Milk (C) Citrus fruits (D) Egg
42. The protein digesting enzyme present in the stomach :
(A) Cathepsin (B) Chymotrypsin (C) Pepsin (D) Trypsin
43. The sugar of milk :
(A) Galactose (B) Lactose (C) Maltose (D) Sucrose
44. Tetany is manifested in :
(A) Respiratory alkalosis (B) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(C) Lactic acidosis (D) Respiratory acidosis
45. One of the following test is not useful to assess kidney function :
(A) Plasma Urea (B) Plasma Cretinine
(C) Plasma Creatine (D) Plasma Cystatin
46. Which of the following bacterial cultures show red fluorescence when exposed to UV light ?
(A) Bacteriodes fragilis (B) Porphyromonas gingivalis
(C) Prevotella melanogenica (D) Fusobacterium nucleatum
47. Which is the causative agent of Dental caries ?
(A) Streptococcus mutans (B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Enterococcus (D) Streptococcus agalactiae
48. Mechanism of Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is :
(A) Transformation (B) Conjugation (C) Transduction (D) Mutation
49. Which of the following viral markers is first to appear in blood after infection with
Hepatitis B virus ?
(A) HBs Ag (B) HBe Ag
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
50. Hard chancre is characteristic of :
(A) Primary syphilis (B) Secondary syphilis
(C) Tertiary syphilis (D) None of the above
51. Electric pulp tests are known to be unreliable in young permanent teeth, because :
(A) late development of dentinal tubular fluid dynamics
(B) the relatively late development of A delta fibres
(C) the late development of Tome’s fibres
(D) pain threshold is inconsistent in children
52. In SI/STA Classification of dental caries; SI 1 is applied to :
(A) Pit and Fissure caries (B) Proximal Surface Caries
(C) Root Caries (D) Smooth Surface Caries
53. C-factor of class I cavity is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
54. What does the term SCAP in an immature, permanent tooth denote ?
(A) surgical closure of apical foramen
(B) a unique population of dental mesenchymal stem cells
(C) retrograde apical sealing technique
(D) apical barrier apexification procedure
55. The angle the blade makes with the central longitudinal axis of the endodontic file is
(A) Cutting Angle (B) Rake Angle
(C) Clearance Angle (D) Helix Angle
56. The extent of facial and lingual cervical contours for maxillary teeth from the CEJ is
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1.0 mm (C) 1.5 mm (D) 2.0 mm
57. Who first introduced the term “Dead tracts” in dentin ?
(A) Anders Retzius (B) Von Ebner (C) Wilfred Fish (D) K. Kawasaki
58. How many teeth are seen in the Orthopantomogram (OPG) of a 6 months old child ?
(A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 34
59. RANK-RANKL-OPG signaling pathway is important in regulating the differentiation and
activation of which cells ?
(A) Osteoblasts (B) Osteoclasts (C) T-Lymphocytes (D) B-Lymphocytes
60. Which non-keratinocyte has desmosomal attachment with adjacent cells ?
(A) Merkel cells (B) Mast cells (C) Melanocytes (D) Langerhans cells
61. Postzygotic mutation of GNAS1 gene in a somatic cell leads to the formation of :
(A) Pagets Disease (B) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
(C) Fibrous Dysplasia (D) Ectodermal Dysplasia
62. The gene for the production of Plasma thromboplastin antecedent (Factor XI) is located on :
(A) Chromosome X (B) Chromosome Y
(C) Chromosome 6 (D) Chromosome 4
63. Congenital unilateral ptosis, with rapid elevation of the ptotic eyelid occurring on movement
of the mandible to the contralateral side is called :
(A) Marcus Gunn Syndrome (B) Marin Amat Syndrome
(C) Horner’s Syndrome (D) Gorham’s Syndrome
64. In OLEP Staging system for Oral leukoplakia, which one of the following lesion is included
in Stage III ?
(A) L1P0 (B) L1P1 (C) L2P0 (D) L3P1
65. Which is the most common salivary neoplasm arising from an odontogenic cyst ?
(A) Acinic Cell Carcinoma (B) Adeno Carcinoma
(C) Mucoepidemoid Carcinoma (D) Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma
66. Open bites, associated with craniofacial syndromes is a deviation from normal in :
(A) Vertical plane (B) Horizontal plane
(C) Transverse plane (D) Occlusal plane
67. Highest form of clinical evidence in hierarchy of quality that exists to guide clinical decision
(A) Randomized control trials (B) Retrospective study
(C) Meta analysis (D) Prospective study
68. Among the following which tooth calcification is commonly associated with assessment of
skeletal maturity ?
(A) Maxillary central incisor (B) Mandibular canine
(C) Maxillary first molar (D) Mandibular first molar
69. The personality considered as forerunner of rapid maxillary expander is :
(A) Norman Kingsley (B) Vigo Andresen
(C) Hyrax (D) Emerson C Angell
70. Which among the following techniques cannot enhance the rate of tooth movement ?
(A) Application of vibration to tooth
(B) Application of heat to teeth and alveolar bone
(C) Application of light to alveolar process
(D) Application of ultrasound to teeth and surroundings
71. Genetic theory of Growth was put forward by :
(A) Brodie in 1941 (B) Pertovic in 1974
(C) Moss in 1962 (D) Sicher in 1955
72. In cephalometrics, pterygoid vertical plane (PTV) is :
(A) Line through Nasion (N) perpendicular to PH plane
(B) Line perpendicular to FH plane through Pt point
(C) Tangent to inferior border of Mandible through Pt point
(D) Line parallel to Pterygoid process
73. Which is not a mixed Dentition Analysis ?
(A) Huckaba’s Analysis (B) Ashley Hower’s Analysis
(C) Hixon and Old father Method (D) Tanaka and Johnston Analysis
74. Kinectic Cavity Preparation :
(A) is Painless
(B) there is no vibration or pressure to cause microfracture that weakens tooth
(C) local anesthesia is always needed
(D) works quietly
75. Which is not a complication associated with stainless steel crown ?
(A) Crown tilt (B) Inhalation or Ingestion
(C) Interproximal ledge (D) Premature contacts well tolerated by child
76. Collimators are made up of :
(A) Tungsten (B) Molybdenum (C) Copper (D) Lead
77. Cystic, keratin filled nodules seen along the mid palatine raphae :
(A) Bohn’s nodules (B) Lateral periodontal cyst
(C) Epstein pearls (D) Calcifying Odontogenic Cyst
78. Herpangina is caused by :
(A) Coxsackie virus (B) Cytomegalovirus
(C) Herpes virus (D) None
79. Restrainer in developing solution :
(A) Potassium bromide (B) Sodium sulfite
(C) Sodium hydroxide (D) Potassium hydroxide
80. Dimension of occlusal film :
(A) 50 mm × 75 mm (B) 57 mm × 76 mm
(C) 55 mm × 75 mm (D) 50 mm × 76 mm
81. Which among the following study designs is best suited for estimation of relative risk ?
(A) Cross sectional study (B) Cohort study
(C) Case control study (D) Randomized control trial
82. Each study subject also serves as a control in :
(A) Concurrent parallel trial (B) Cohort study
(C) Quasi experimental study (D) Cross over trial
83. Which of the following is the most cost effective technique for prevention of caries ?
(A) Community water fluoridation
(B) Use of fluoride dentifrice
(C) Professional application of fluoride varnish
(D) Knutson’s technique
84. Identify the third generation chemical plaque control agent from the following :
(A) Sangunarine (B) Phenols (C) Chlorhexidine (D) Delmopinol
85. Incidence can be obtained from :
(A) Cross sectional study (B) Case Control study
(C) Longitudinal study (D) Ecological study
86. The predominance of plasma cells is thought to be a primary characteristic of :
(A) Advanced lesion (B) Early lesion
(C) Established lesion (D) Initial lesion
87. The cytokeratins which are expressed in the junctional epithelium are :
(A) K4 and K13 (B) K5 and K14 (C) K6 and K16 (D) K1 and K2
88. The technique that surgically removes the pocket wall is :
(A) Undisplaced flap (B) Modified Widman flap
(C) Papilla preservation flap (D) Conventional flap
89. Which of the following electronic probe is capable of locating the cementoenamel junction ?
(A) Interprobe (B) Foster Miller probe
(C) Periprobe (D) Florida probe
90. Which of the following is a sulcular brushing technique ?
(A) Modified Stillman technique (B) Fones technique
(C) Charters technique (D) Bass technique
91. Amount of Lignocaine present in 2cc of 2% LA solution is :
(A) 40 mg (B) 20 mg (C) 400 mg (D) 0.4 mg
92. The pathognomonic sign of fracture mandible is :
(A) Deranged occlusion (B) Displacement
(C) Open Bite (D) Sublingual Hematoma
93. The direction of first force applied in extracting upper anterior tooth is :
(A) Rotational (B) Buccal (C) Apical (D) Palatal
94. Sodium metabisulphite is added to local anaesthetic solution as :
(B) Principal active ingredient
(C) Anti oxidant to protect vasoconstrictor
(D) Antifungal Agent
95. Which of the following is the drug of choice in Anaphylactic shock ?
(A) Sodium Nitroprusside (B) Adrenalin
(C) Phenergan (D) Deriphylline
96. Gypsum is :
(A) CaSO4.2H2O (B) (CaSO4)2.H2O (C) H2SO4 (D) CaSO4
97. Freeway space =
(A) occlusal vertical dimension + rest vertical dimension
(B) occlusal vertical dimension − rest vertical dimension
(C) rest vertical dimension − occlusal vertical dimension
(D) rest vertical dimension
98. In RPD, border of maxillary major connector should be at least __________ away from the
gingival crevice of teeth.
(A) 5 mm (B) 6 mm (C) 6 cm (D) 5 cm
99. In tooth preparation for fixed partial dentures and crowns, bevel should be prepared in :
(A) non functional cusp (B) functional cusp
(C) in both cusps (D) none
100. Type of minor connector in removable partial denture that is not required to be rigid :
(A) connects denture base to major connector
(B) join clasp assembly to major connector
(C) join indirect retainer to major connector
(D) approach arm for Bar type clasp
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