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Preparing for the Kerala PSC Staff Nurse exam? Previous question papers are invaluable resources for understanding the exam pattern, marking scheme, and frequently asked topics. The Kerala PSC Staff Nurse previous year question paper is now available for download in PDF format. Utilize this resource to enhance your preparation and increase your chances of success in the upcoming examination.
Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Previous Question Paper 2024
Kerala PSC previous question papers are essential for exam preparation, offering insights into the pattern, syllabus, and key topics. Download these papers in PDF format to practice effectively, and improve your chances of success in upcoming Kerala PSC exams.
| Question Paper Code | Download Now |
| 102/2012 | |
| 200/2014 | |
| 603/2014 | |
| 277/2015 | |
| 051/2016 | |
| 138/2016 | |
| 018/2018 | |
| 045/2024 |
How to Download Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Previous Question Paper 2024
1: Which Year First Assembly Election was held in Kerala?
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Join Now!Model Questions of Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Exam 2024
Attempt the following questions:
1. ……..is the inflammation of the tongue:
A. Gingivitis
B. Gastritis
C. Glossitis
D. Parotitis
Correct answer: Glossitis
2. Heat regulating center is:
A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Basal nuclei
D. Central cortex
Correct answer: Hypothalamus
3. position used for giving enema:
A. Left lateral
B. Right lateral
C. Dorsal recumbent
D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: Left lateral
4. Strength of normal saline is:
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 0.45%
D. 0.9%
Correct answer: 0.9%
5. An agent that has the power to kill microorganisms:
A. Bacteriocide
B. Antiseptic
C. Bacteriostat
D. Disinfectant
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Correct answer: Bacteriocide
6. 1 gm of fat give calories of heat:
A. 10
B. 4
C. 2
D. 9
Correct answer: 9
7. Strength of savlon for disinfecting thermometer is:
A. 1:30
B. 1:20
C. 1:40
D. 1:10
Correct answer: 1:30
8. Reaction of normal urine is:
A. Addic
B. Slightly acidic
C. Neutral
D. Alkaline
Correct answer: Slightly acidic
9. Loss of appetite is termed as:
A. Dyspepsia
B. Dysphagia
C. Anorexia
D. Nausea
Correct answer: Anorexia
10. Amount of solution administered for an evacuant enema for adults:
A. 250-500 ml
B. 500-1000ml
C. 1000-1500 ml
D. 1500-2000 ml
Correct answer: 500-1000ml
11. The temperature of the water used for tepid sponging is:
A. 65-85 °F
B. 85-100 °F
C. 100-105 °F
D. 105-110 °F
Correct answer: 85-100F
12. One pint is equal to:
A. 250 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 750 ml
D. 1000 ml
Correct answer: 500 ml
13. Size of needle for intramuscular injection:
A. 18-20 gauge
B. 21-23 gauge
C. 24-25 gauge
D. 26-27 gauge
Correct answer: 21-23 gauge
14. Rate of oxygen administration through nasal catheter:
A. 0.5-1L
B. 1-2 L
C. 2-4 L
D. 4-6 L
Correct answer: 2-4 L
15. Instrument used to examine the rectum:
A. Autoscope
B. Proctoscope
C. Endoscope
D. Ophthalmoscope
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Correct answer: Proctoscope
16. Florence Nightingale was born on:
A. January 12
B. April 12
C. March 5
D. May 12
Correct answer: May 12
17. Drugs used to induce vomiting is:
A. Emetic
B. Antiemetic
C. Pyretics
D. Antipyretics
Correct answer: Emetic
18. Acetic acid is used for testing urine for:
A. Sugar
B. Acetate
C. Albumin
D. Bile salts
Correct answer: Albumin
19. Enema given to destroy or expel the worms from the intestine:
A. Astringent enema
B. Anthelmintic enema
C. Purgative enema
D. Carminative enema
Correct answer: Anthelmintic enema
20. The important person in the hospital:
A. Doctor
B. Nurse
C. Patient
D. Technician
Correct answer: Patient
21. Exanimation with the help of a stethoscope is called:
A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
Correct answer: Auscultation
22. When pulse rate is less than 60 per minute it is called:
A. Bradycardia
B. Bradypnea
C. Tachycardia
D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: Bradycardia
23. Lock jaw develops in:
A. Typhoid
B. Tetanus
C. Meningitis
D. Diphtheria
Correct answer: Tetanus
24. The process of incising the ear to promote drainage is called:
A. Trephining
B. Mobilization
C. Myringotomy
D. Fenestration
Correct answer: Myringotomy
25. The most common complication during the first 24 hours following an amputation:
A. Infection
B. Flexion
C. Hemorrhage
D. Sloughing of the sutures
Correct answer: Hemorrhage
26. The doctor ordered a 1,00,000 units of penicillin. If there is a vial containing 2,00,000 units diluted in 10 ml. How many ml be given to the patient?
A. 5 ml
B. 0.75 ml
C. 1.25 ml
D. 2.5 ml
Correct answer: 5 ml
27. Profuse menstrual flow during her period is called:
A. Metrorrhagia
B. Menorrhagia
C. Amenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea
Correct answer: Menorrhagia
28. The most serious complication fracture is:
A. Infection
B. Fat embolism
C. Hemorrhage
D. Air embolism
Correct answer: Fat embolism
29. Buck’s extension is a method of:
A. Skin traction
B. Skin grafting
C. Skeletal traction
D. Bom grafting
Correct answer: Skin traction
30. The incubation period of chickenpox is:
A. 12-21 days
B. 1-7 days
C. 5-10 days
D. 3 weeks-1 month
Correct answer: 12-21 days
31. Schick test is used for the determination of person’s susceptibility to:
A. Scarlet fever
B. Tuberculosis
C. Diphtheria
D. Typhoid fever
Correct answer: Diphtheria
32. Which of those effects is expected following the administration of a mydriatic medication?
A. Dilatation of the pupils
B. Improved power of accommodation
C. Inflammation of the nasolacrimal duct
D. Increased drainage of the aqueous humor
Correct answer: Dilation of the pupils
33. Common type of fracture in children:
A. Simple fracture
B. Collis fracture
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Complicated fracture
Correct answer: Greenstick fracture
34. The most important point in nursing care of a patient after tracheostomy is:
A. Administration of antibiotics
B. Maintenance of intake output
C. Oxygen administration
D. Suctioning
Correct answer: Suctioning
35. Quickening takes place between:
A. 10th and 16th week
B. 16th and 20th week
C. 20th and 24th week
D. After 24th week
Correct answer: 16th and the 20th week
36. The diuretic phase begins in bums within:
A. 48-72 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 36-48 hours
D. 24-36 hours
Correct answer-48-72 hours
37. The main side effect of streptomycin is:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Blood dyscrasias
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance
Correct answer: Ototoxicity
38. Vector of malaria is:
A. Female culex mosquito
B. Female anopheles mosquito
C. Male culex mosquito
D. Male anopheles mosquito
Correct answer: Female anopheles mosquito
39. Megaloblastic anemia is due to the deficiency of.
A. Iron
B. Thiamine
C. Acetic acid
D. Folic acid
Correct answer: Folic acid
40. The normal serum bilirubin is:
A. 0.1-1 mg/dl
B. 2-4 mg/di
C. 1.5-3.5 mg/dl
D. 10-12 mg/dl
Correct answer: 0.1-1 mg/do
41. The symptom of enlarged prostrate include.
A. Pyuria
B. Difficulty in micturition
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance
Correct answer: Difficulty in micturition
42. A degenerative disease of the brain associated with liver failure:
A. Uremia
B. Diabetic coma
C. Septicemia
D. Hepatic coma
Correct answer: Hepatic coma
43. Severe pain occur in the right quadrant of the abdomen radiating the back right shoulder:
A. Renal colic
B. Internal colic
C. Biliary colic
D. Abdominal colic
Correct answer: Biliary colic
44. To lower the acidity of gastric secretion give:
A. Gelusil
B. Belladona
C. Aspirin
D. Carminative mixture
Correct answer: Gelusil
45 Diabetes mellitus is usually recognized by:
A. Albuminuria
B. Lack of appetite
C. Glycosuria
D. Urea in the urine
Correct answer: Glycosuria
46. Tuberculosis of the spine is also called:
A. Osteomalacia
B. Charcot’s disease
C. Erving’s disease
D. Pott’s disease
Correct answer: Pott’s disease
47. Nitroglycerine is given sublingually to relieve pain by vasodilatation of:
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Coronary artery
C. Aortic artery
D. Carotid artery
Correct answer: Coronary artery
48. The cause of ascites in cirrhosis of the liver is:
A. General fluid imbalance
B. Portal obstruction
C. Kidney trouble
D. All the above
Correct answer: Portal obstruction
49. Dr. Salk discovered a vaccine for the prevention of:
A. Measles
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Smallpox
D. Tetanus
Correct answer: Poliomyelitis
50. Pneumothorax is the condition in which there is:
A. Water in the visceral space
B. Air in the visceral space
C. Water in the pleural space
D. Air in the pleural space
Correct answer: Air in pleural space
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