Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Previous Question Paper 2022

Are you preparing for Kerala PSC Staff Nurse written examination? Are you worried about model questions and the previous year’s question paper? Here is the answer to all your doubts. In this article, you can attempt several model questions and download Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Previous Question Paper 2022. Start your exam preparation with the Entri applications and ace your learning.

Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Previous Question Paper 2022

Kerala PSC Staff Nurse written examination will be conducted in objective type format, which consists of questions from two sections; Part 1 – Common Paper and Part 2 – Nursing topics. You can download the syllabus of the Staff Nurse exam from the link. Download the previous year’s question paper from the following link.

STAFF NURSE PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION

Model Questions of Kerala PSC Staff Nurse 

Attempt the following questions:

1. ……..is the inflammation of the tongue:

A. Gingivitis
B. Gastritis
C. Glossitis
D. Parotitis

Correct answer: Glossitis

2. Heat regulating center is:

A. Thalamus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Basal nuclei
D. Central cortex

Correct answer: Hypothalamus

3. position used for giving enema:

A. Left lateral
B. Right lateral
C. Dorsal recumbent
D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: Left lateral

4. Strength of normal saline is:

A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 0.45%
D. 0.9%

Correct answer: 0.9%

5. An agent that has the power to kill microorganisms:

A. Bacteriocide
B. Antiseptic
C. Bacteriostat
D. Disinfectant

Correct answer: Bacteriocide

6. 1 gm of fat give calories of heat:

A. 10
B. 4
C. 2
D. 9

Correct answer: 9

7. Strength of savlon for disinfecting thermometer is:

A. 1:30
B. 1:20
C. 1:40
D. 1:10

Correct answer: 1:30

8. Reaction of normal urine is:

A. Addic
B. Slightly acidic
C. Neutral
D. Alkaline

Correct answer: Slightly acidic

9. Loss of appetite is termed as:

A. Dyspepsia
B. Dysphagia
C. Anorexia
D. Nausea

Correct answer: Anorexia

10. Amount of solution administered for an evacuant enema for adults:

A. 250-500 ml
B. 500-1000ml
C. 1000-1500 ml
D. 1500-2000 ml

Correct answer: 500-1000ml

11. The temperature of the water used for tepid sponging is:

A. 65-85 °F
B. 85-100 °F
C. 100-105 °F
D. 105-110 °F

Correct answer: 85-100F

12. One pint is equal to:

A. 250 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 750 ml
D. 1000 ml

Correct answer: 500 ml

13. Size of needle for intramuscular injection:

A. 18-20 gauge
B. 21-23 gauge
C. 24-25 gauge
D. 26-27 gauge

Correct answer: 21-23 gauge

14. Rate of oxygen administration through nasal catheter:

A. 0.5-1L
B. 1-2 L
C. 2-4 L
D. 4-6 L

Correct answer: 2-4 L

15. Instrument used to examine the rectum:

A. Autoscope
B. Proctoscope
C. Endoscope
D. Ophthalmoscope

Correct answer: Proctoscope

16. Florence Nightingale was born on:

A. January 12
B. April 12
C. March 5
D. May 12

Correct answer: May 12

17. Drugs used to induce vomiting is:

A. Emetic
B. Antiemetic
C. Pyretics
D. Antipyretics

Correct answer: Emetic

18. Acetic acid is used for testing urine for:

A. Sugar
B. Acetate
C. Albumin
D. Bile salts

Correct answer: Albumin

19. Enema given to destroy or expel the worms from the intestine:

A. Astringent enema
B. Anthelmintic enema
C. Purgative enema
D. Carminative enema

Correct answer: Anthelmintic enema

20. The important person in the hospital:

A. Doctor
B. Nurse
C. Patient
D. Technician

Correct answer: Patient

21. Exanimation with the help of a stethoscope is called:

A. Percussion
B. Palpation
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection

Correct answer: Auscultation

22. When pulse rate is less than 60 per minute it is called:

A. Bradycardia
B. Bradypnea
C. Tachycardia
D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: Bradycardia

23. Lock jaw develops in:

A. Typhoid
B. Tetanus
C. Meningitis
D. Diphtheria

Correct answer: Tetanus

24. The process of incising the ear to promote drainage is called:

A. Trephining
B. Mobilization
C. Myringotomy
D. Fenestration

Correct answer: Myringotomy

25. The most common complication during the first 24 hours following an amputation:

A. Infection
B. Flexion
C. Hemorrhage
D. Sloughing of the sutures

Correct answer: Hemorrhage

26. The doctor ordered a 1,00,000 units of penicillin. If there is a vial containing 2,00,000 units diluted in 10 ml. How many ml be given to the patient?

A. 5 ml
B. 0.75 ml
C. 1.25 ml
D. 2.5 ml

Correct answer: 5 ml

27. Profuse menstrual flow during her period is called:

A. Metrorrhagia
B. Menorrhagia
C. Amenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea

Correct answer: Menorrhagia

28. The most serious complication fracture is:

A. Infection
B. Fat embolism
C. Hemorrhage
D. Air embolism

Correct answer: Fat embolism

29. Buck’s extension is a method of:

A. Skin traction
B. Skin grafting
C. Skeletal traction
D. Bom grafting

Correct answer: Skin traction

30. The incubation period of chickenpox is:

A. 12-21 days
B. 1-7 days
C. 5-10 days
D. 3 weeks-1 month

Correct answer: 12-21 days

31. Schick test is used for the determination of person’s susceptibility to:

A. Scarlet fever
B. Tuberculosis
C. Diphtheria
D. Typhoid fever

Correct answer: Diphtheria

32. Which of those effects is expected following the administration of a mydriatic medication?

A. Dilatation of the pupils
B. Improved power of accommodation
C. Inflammation of the nasolacrimal duct
D. Increased drainage of the aqueous humor

Correct answer: Dilation of the pupils

33. Common type of fracture in children:

A. Simple fracture
B. Collis fracture
C. Greenstick fracture
D. Complicated fracture

Correct answer: Greenstick fracture

34. The most important point in nursing care of a patient after tracheostomy is:

A. Administration of antibiotics
B. Maintenance of intake output
C. Oxygen administration
D. Suctioning

Correct answer: Suctioning

35. Quickening takes place between:
A. 10th and 16th week
B. 16th and 20th week
C. 20th and 24th week
D. After 24th week

Correct answer: 16th and the 20th week

36. The diuretic phase begins in bums within:
A. 48-72 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 36-48 hours
D. 24-36 hours

Correct answer-48-72 hours

37. The main side effect of streptomycin is:

A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Blood dyscrasias
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance

Correct answer: Ototoxicity

38. Vector of malaria is:

A. Female culex mosquito
B. Female anopheles mosquito
C. Male culex mosquito
D. Male anopheles mosquito

Correct answer: Female anopheles mosquito

39. Megaloblastic anemia is due to the deficiency of.

A. Iron
B. Thiamine
C. Acetic acid
D. Folic acid

Correct answer: Folic acid

40. The normal serum bilirubin is:

A. 0.1-1 mg/dl
B. 2-4 mg/di
C. 1.5-3.5 mg/dl
D. 10-12 mg/dl

Correct answer: 0.1-1 mg/do

41. The symptom of enlarged prostrate include.

A. Pyuria
B. Difficulty in micturition
C. Ototoxicity
D. Visual disturbance

Correct answer: Difficulty in micturition

42. A degenerative disease of the brain associated with liver failure:

A. Uremia
B. Diabetic coma
C. Septicemia
D. Hepatic coma

Correct answer: Hepatic coma

43. Severe pain occur in the right quadrant of the abdomen radiating the back right shoulder:

A. Renal colic
B. Internal colic
C. Biliary colic
D. Abdominal colic

Correct answer: Biliary colic

44. To lower the acidity of gastric secretion give:

A. Gelusil
B. Belladona
C. Aspirin
D. Carminative mixture

Correct answer: Gelusil

45 Diabetes mellitus is usually recognized by:

A. Albuminuria
B. Lack of appetite
C. Glycosuria
D. Urea in the urine

Correct answer: Glycosuria

46. Tuberculosis of the spine is also called:

A. Osteomalacia
B. Charcot’s disease
C. Erving’s disease
D. Pott’s disease

Correct answer: Pott’s disease

47. Nitroglycerine is given sublingually to relieve pain by vasodilatation of:

A. Pulmonary artery
B. Coronary artery
C. Aortic artery
D. Carotid artery

Correct answer: Coronary artery

48. The cause of ascites in cirrhosis of the liver is:

A. General fluid imbalance
B. Portal obstruction
C. Kidney trouble
D. All the above

Correct answer: Portal obstruction

49. Dr. Salk discovered a vaccine for the prevention of:

A. Measles
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Smallpox
D. Tetanus

Correct answer: Poliomyelitis

50. Pneumothorax is the condition in which there is:

A. Water in the visceral space
B. Air in the visceral space
C. Water in the pleural space
D. Air in the pleural space

Correct answer: Air in pleural space

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