Kerala PSC conducts Assistant Surgeon Recruitment to select eligible and suitable candidates to work as Casualty Medical Officer/Assistant Surgeon in the Health Services Department across various districts of Kerala. This is one such high-in demand post due to the numerous benefits and job satisfaction that if offers. However, acing the Kerala PSC Assistant Surgeon examination will be a real nightmare if not planned well in advance. Therefore, here, in this article, we bring to you a quick Kerala PSC Assistant Surgeon Mock Test 2022 to keep your spirit on during the course of study!
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Kerala PSC Assistant Surgeon Mock test 2022
Kerala PSC will soon release the official date of the Assistant Surgeon examination. Meanwhile, the candidates must keep themselves prepared every moment so as to face the exam fearlessly. It is always great to have a proper study plan in accordance to the exam pattern and syllabus before trying to attempt any competitive examination.
Exam Pattern
| Topics | No. of Questions | Max Marks | Time Allotted |
| Anesthesiology, Biochemistry,
Community Medicine, Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, Human Anatomy, Microbiology, Medicine and its Allied Specialty, Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation, Human Physiology and Biophysics, Pathology, Pharmacology, Family Welfare, Ophthalmology, Radiology, Otorhinolaryngology, Psychiatry, Dermatology, Surgery and its Allied Specialties, Orthopedic, Radiotherapy, Pediatrics, Obstetrics and Gynecology
|
100 | 100 | 1 hour and 15 minutes |
Kerala PSC Assistant Surgeon Mock test
- The minimum age at which an individual attains criminal responsibility is
(A) 18 years
(B) 12 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 5 years
- The term MERMER is related to :
(A) Brain fingerprinting
(B) DNA fingerprinting
(C) Narco-analysis
(D) Polygraph test
- The following are prodrugs Except :
(A) Captopril
(B) Enalapril
(C) Perindopril
(D) Ramipril
- Which of the following is the cause of hyperkalemic distal renal tubular acidosis?
(A) Amylodosis
(B) Hyper pars thyroidism
(C) SLE
(D) Adclisons disease
- Karyotype in partial mole I
(A) 46 xxy
(B) 69 xx
(C) 69 xxy
(D) 46 xy
- Which of the following statements regarding gastric ulcer is incorrect?
(A) Type I ulcers are the most common variety
(B) Type Il ulcers are also known as, prepyloric ulcers
(C) Risk of malignant change is very high in type II gastric ulcers
(D) Type III ulcers occur in the antral region
- All of the following are devices for oxygen therapy except
(A) Nasal prongs
(B) Nascipharyngeal airway
(C) Face mask
(D) Venturi mask
- Which among the River mentioned by Kautilya’s Arthasastra as one of the places in India
where pearls could be found?
(A) Perivar
(B) Bharathapuzha
(C) Pumba
(D) Kaveri
- A Social Reformer, who at first time installed a mirror for worshipping in South India was
(A) Sree Narayana Guru
(B) Ayya Vaikundar
(C) A. Ayyappan
(D) Kumara Guru
- Which Educational Reform came to be known as the “Magna Carta” of Indian Education?
(A) Minutes of Macaulay
(B) Hunter Commission
(C) Calcutta Corporation Act
(D) Wood’s Despatch
- Ozaena is related to.:
(A) Rhinosporidiosis
(B) Rhinophyma
(C) Atrophic rhinitis
(D.) Rhinitis Medicamentosa
- Which of the following is not a hereditary disease?
(A) Retinitis Pigmentosa
(B) Retinopathy of Prematurity
(C) Stargardes Disease
(D) Lepers Congenital Amaurosis
- 45 yr old male cornea with profuse watery diarrhoea and recurrent vomiting following food intake from a restaurant 5 hours back. What is the likely organism that is responsible for his illness?
(A) Enterotoxin producing microorganisms
(B) Enteroadherent bacteria
(C) Cytotoxin producing bacteria
(D) Enteroinvasive microorganism
- Mean head to body delivery time in normal birth is ;
(A) 50 seconds
(B) 79 seconds
(C) 24 seconds
(D) 42 seconds
- Ecthyrn a gangrenosum is the cutaneous manifestation of septicaemia due to
(A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(B) Staphylococcus aurcus
(C) Tryponern a pallid
(D) Haemophilus ducreyi
In a PTB (Patellar Tendon Bearing) socket, all of the following are pressure tolerant areas except:
(A) Patellar tendon
(B) Gastronemius
(C) Fibular head
(D) Medial tibial flare
- ‘World cancer day’ is on :
(A) 7th April
(B) 4th February
(C) 31st May
(D) 12th December
- What is the ET tube size to be used in a 1.5 kg baby :
(A) 2.5
(B) 3
(C) 3.5
(D) 4
- The following is true of bone age estimation except:
(A) Tanner Whitehouse staging is used
(B) Fifteen ossification centres are used in the Tanner Whitehouse system
(C) X ray shoulder is most useful during.early infancy
(D) The last carpal bone to ossify is the pisiform at the age of 12 years
- The cyclo development phase is seen in the transmission of the agent :
(A) P. Vivax
(B) Japanese encephalitis virus
(C) W. bancrofti
(D) Dengue virus
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All the best to the aspirants preparing for Kerala PSC Assistant Surgeon Recruitment Examination. Solve as much as practice papers as possible before the actual examination begins! This is definitely going to build your confidence! Good Luck!
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