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With the IBPS Clerk CRP CSA-XVI application process starting on 01 August 2026 and the Preliminary Exam scheduled for October 2026, now is the right time to begin practicing with mock tests. The IBPS Clerk Mock Test 2026 familiarizes you with the latest exam pattern, question types, and the actual test environment, helping you prepare with greater confidence. In this article, you’ll find the latest exam pattern, section-wise mock test strategy, and practical tips to incorporate mock tests effectively into your preparation plan.
IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2026 – Download Model Question Papers
| Title | Link |
| IBPS Clerk Question Paper PDF | |
| IBPS Clerk Answer Key PDF | |
| IBPS Clerk First Sitting Question Paper PDF | |
| IBPS Clerk First Sitting Answer Key PDF | |
| IBPS Clerk Second Sitting Question Paper PDF | |
| IBPS Clerk Second Sitting Answer Key PDF |
IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2026 – Notification Details
1: What does the acronym "ATM" stand for in banking?
| Particulars | Details |
|---|---|
| Recruitment Cycle | CRP CSA-XVI |
| Post | Customer Service Associate (CSA) |
| Conducting Body | Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) |
| Mode of Application | Online only |
| Official Website | www.ibps.in |
| Registration Start Date | 01.08.2026 |
| Registration Last Date | 21.08.2026 |
| Application Fee Payment Window | 01.08.2026 to 21.08.2026 |
| Form Edit Window | After closure of registration (dates to be notified) |
| Grievance/Query Portal | https://cgrs.ibps.in |
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Join Now!IBPS Clerk Recruitment 2026 – Previous Year Question Paper Download
|
Title |
Link |
| IBPS Clerk Question Paper 2018 – Prelims | |
| IBPS Clerk Question Paper 2018- Mains | |
| Verbal Ability IBPS Clerk Question Paper 2017 – Prelims | |
| Reasoning IBPS Clerk Question Paper 2017 – Prelims | |
| Quant IBPS Clerk Question Paper 2017 – Prelims |
IBPS Clerk 2026 – Recruitment Dates
| Activity | Timeline |
|---|---|
| Online Registration | 01.08.2026 to 21.08.2026 |
| Payment of Application Fee | 01.08.2026 to 21.08.2026 |
| Pre-Examination Training (PET) | September 2026 |
| Preliminary Examination | October 2026 |
| Result – Preliminary | November 2026 |
| Main Examination | December 2026 |
| Provisional Allotment | March 2027 |
IBPS Clerk Prelims Exam Pattern 2026 – Marks & Details
- Composite duration of 1 hour with individual sectional timing of 20 minutes each.
- Negative marking of 0.25 marks for every wrong answer.
- Candidates must clear both sectional and overall cut-off marks to qualify for Mains.
| Sr. No. | Section | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | English Language | 30 | 30 | 20 minutes |
| 2 | Numerical Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 minutes |
| 3 | Reasoning Ability | 35 | 35 | 20 minutes |
| Total | 100 | 100 | 1 Hour |
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Join Now!IBPS Clerk Mains Exam Pattern 2026 – Questions & Marks
- Final selection is based purely on Mains score, subject to eligibility norms.
- Negative marking of 0.25 marks applies for every incorrect answer in Mains as well.
| Sr. No. | Section | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks | Duration |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | General/Financial Awareness | 50 | 50 | 35 minutes |
| 2 | General English | 40 | 40 | 35 minutes |
| 3 | Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude | 50 | 60 | 45 minutes |
| 4 | Quantitative Aptitude | 50 | 50 | 45 minutes |
| Total | 190 | 200 | 2 Hours 40 Minutes |
IBPS Clerk Mock Test 2026 – Model Questions & Answers
The IBPS Clerk exam is a two-tier process — Prelims (qualifying) and Mains (scoring) — with strict sectional time limits and 0.25 negative marking in both stages.
Directions (Q. 1-2): Which of the following numbers from the provided options (a, b, c and d) will come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the following series?
Q. (1) 110, 235, 410, 635, ?
- 810
- 835
- 910
- 935
Q. (2) 15.5, 9.5, ? , 6.5, 6.2
- 9.2
- 15.2
- 12.5
- 7.83
Q. (3) The ratio between the age of Shyam and his brother at present is 4:3 respectively and the ratio between the present ages of Shyam’s father and Shyam is 11:6 respectively. What is the ratio between the ages of Shyam’s father and Shyam’s brother after eight years, respectively?
- 3:4
- 2:1
- 6:3
- None of the above
Q. (4) Riya read 2/5th of a book on the first day and 34% of the book on the second day. She read the remaining pages in the next two days by divided the pages equally for those two days. If she read 52 pages on the last day, then find out the total number of pages that the book contains.
- 300
- 350
- 400
- 480
Directions Q. (5-7): Read the following information and the questions given below.
In a restaurant, eight friends J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a rectangular table. Out of eight, four sits at the corners of the table facing outside, and the other four sits in the middle of the table. M sits third to the right of P. N sits third to the left of L. P faces the centre. Only one person sits between N, and O. O is not the immediate neighbour of L. Q faces the centre. J is not an immediate neighbour of O. L does not sit in the middle of the sides.
Q. (5) What is the position of J with respect to L?
- Fourth to the left
- Second to the left
- Fifth to the right
- Diagonally opposite to each other
- Second to the right
Q. (6) Who among the following sits third to the right of Q?
- J
- P
- M
- L
- N
Q. (7) Which of the following pairs represent the members seated in the middle side who face each other?
- P and N
- Q and O
- P and O
- M and N
- P and Q
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Q. (8) X travelled 30 km towards the north and then walked 22 km towards the south. From there, X walked 6 km towards the east. Calculate the distance travelled by X from the initial point.
- 20 km
- 30 km
- 15 km
- 10 km
Q. (9) If A and B can finish a task in 42 days provided the ratio of efficiency between A and B is 7:3, then how many days will A take to complete the task alone?
- 84 days
- 70 days
- 60 days
- 90 days
Q. (10) There are three samples containing different proportions of milk and water, i.e., 2:5, 1:4 and 4:3. All three samples are mixed together in a container. Find out the final proportion of milk and water in the container.
- 25:47
- 37:68
- 28:17
- 41:52
Q. (11) The C.P. of a book is Rs.590 and was sold at a profit of 4.12%. Find the approximate S.P.
- Rs.650
- Rs.470
- Rs.614
- Rs.400
Directions Q. (12-13): Read each sentence to find any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be one part of the sentence. If the sentence is correct mark ‘no error’ as your answer.
Q. (12) The meeting held in Delhi (1) / was attended to (2) / by all the (3) / board members (4) / No error (5)
- (5)
- (4)
- (2)
- (1)
- (3)
Q. (13) The number of candidates (1) / applying for the (2) / examination are (3) / increasing day by day (4) / No error (5)
- (2)
- (4)
- (5)
- (3)
- (1)
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Directions Q. (14-15): The relationship between the different elements is shown in the statements below. Mark the correct conclusions mentioned in each question as
- Conclusion I is correct
- Conclusion II is correct
- Either conclusion I or conclusion II is correct
- Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is correct
- Both the conclusions I and II are true
Q. (14) Statement: M > N = O ≤ P; Q > O
Conclusions: (I) M < P
(II) N < Q
Q. (15) Statement: P > Q ≤ R = S = T
Conclusions: (I) Q < T
(II) Q = T
Directions Q. (16-19): Study the passage carefully and answer the following questions:
There are eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H belonging to three different departments: Science, Arts and Commerce. Each of them has a different choice of sports.
D belongs to Arts and likes neither football nor cricket. F is from Science along with A and both like table tennis. E and H do not belong to the same department as D. C likes hockey but do not belong to Commerce. G is not from Arts and likes neither cricket nor badminton. One who belongs to Arts likes football. The one who likes volleyballs from Science department. No one belonging to Arts likes either lawn tennis or badminton. H dislikes cricket.
Q. (16) Which of the following groups of students belong to the Arts department?
- BCD
- AFS
- EFG
- ACD
Q. (17) In which department does E belong?
- Science
- Arts
- Commerce
- None of the above
Q. (18) Choose the favourite sport of G.
- Lawn tennis
- Volleyball
- Cricket
- Football
Q. (19) Choose the correct combination.
- Badminton-H-Commerce
- Arts-E-Cricket
- Arts-B-Table tennis
- None of the above
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Q. (20) Rs.5500 is borrowed by Raj at 8% per annum. He paid Rs.1000 to the donor at the end of the year. How much amount should be paid by Raj at the end of the 2nd year?
- 4500
- 5335
- 5300
- 4000
Directions Q. (21-23): In the following questions, there is one pair of synonym and antonym. Find the correct pair?
Q. (21)
- eccentric-freakish
- bizarre-ordinary
- aberrant-anomalous
- naive-artless
Q. (22)
- pitiful-poignant
- feeble-contemptible
- wretched-fortunate
- worthy-admirable
Q. (23)
- counterfeit-genuine
- sanguine-buoyant
- propitious-providential
- bewildering-baffling
Q. (24) X runs at a speed of 12 m / s in a circular ground of area 264600 metre square. Calculate the time taken by him to complete the circle.
- 140 seconds
- 152 seconds
- 158 seconds
- 160 seconds
Q. (25) A car travels at a speed of 80 km/h. The speed is increasing at every 3 hours at a rate of 4 km/hr. In how many hours will the car complete 660 km?
- 3 hours
- 1 hour
- 2 hours
- 4 hours
How Mock Tests Helps in IBPS Clerk Exam 2026?
Mock tests are a very important part of every exam preparation. Attending a good number of mock tests before the main examination can help every candidate to understand the pattern of the examination, methods, and topics to follow and also will give an insight regarding the difficulty of the examination. The given below are the benefits of attending mock tests before the examination that every candidate will obtain. Candidates who are preparing for the examination are requested to go through the benefits given below.
- Taking a mock test before the examination will give an insight into the difficulty level and the kind of questions that are asked in the examination.
- Mock tests are usually prepared under the supervision or of experienced faculty and mentors. This will give a candidate a good understanding and knowledge regarding the topics and also will give you an introduction to some of the repeatedly asked questions.
- Practicing more and more questions will make your preparation more perfect and will ensure you score good ranks in the final rank list.
- Mock tests are prepared by the experts and they are prepared in a way that gives students a feel of the real exam. For most of the students about to take a major examination to land on their dream job, mock tests provide a trial run and will help to increase their confidence. Being placed in the same situation and feeling the same amount of pressure before the actual competitive exam will inculcate some self-analytical capacity and confidence in the student.
- Mock Test helps in reducing pre-exam nervousness, as the candidate has already appeared for a version of the exam before, on the final day he will be more relaxed.
- Most students who are preparing for competitive exams do so in chapters, units, and sections during their preparation. By the end of it all, candidates will have complete confidence that they are prepared to take the competitive exam. But on the final exam day, being tensed on the exam situation can move things sideways and can affect the candidate’s performance in the examination. This happens because of a tendency to underestimate the toughness of the questions and the scope of the syllabus in a combined way. Attending as many mock tests before the examination can help the candidates to overcome this situation.
- Mock tests are important because of the practice they provide. Practice makes the preparation more thorough and gives confidence to the candidates. For the competitive exam, revision is key to remembering all that you have studied. Multiple attempts of the Mock Test help students revise the entire syllabus in the simulated setting of the actual exam. This way they remember what they have learned and perform well in the actual exams.
- Mock tests make students familiar with the style and scope of the question paper. Managing to finish the exam on time is really challenging. Mock tests help the candidates with time management which, in itself, is half the work done. The candidate is given the chance to work on the problem and to overcome that. After taking several mock tests, the student is in a position to work on his weaknesses and to chalk out a plan to overcome them.
Start your IBPS Clerk 2026 preparation with Entri’s structured mock test series, topic-wise quizzes, and full-length tests prepared to match the latest CRP CSA-XVI exam pattern. Download the Entri App today and put your preparation to the test.
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Join Now!Frequently Asked Questions
Why should I take IBPS Clerk mock tests before the exam?
Mock tests help candidates understand the exam pattern and difficulty level. They provide real exam-like practice, improving time management skills. Attempting multiple tests boosts confidence and reduces exam-day stress. It also helps identify weak areas to improve before the actual exam.
Are IBPS Clerk mock tests available for both Prelims and Mains?
Yes, candidates can access mock tests for both Prelims and Mains. Prelims mock tests cover English, Numerical Ability, and Reasoning. Mains mock tests include Reasoning & Computer Aptitude, English, Quantitative Aptitude, and General/Financial Awareness. Practicing both ensures complete preparation for all stages.
How do IBPS Clerk mock tests help in scoring higher marks?
Mock tests familiarize candidates with the style and scope of questions. Regular practice strengthens speed and accuracy in solving problems. They act as a revision tool, covering the full syllabus effectively. By simulating exam pressure, mock tests prepare candidates to perform better on the final day.





